CCNP Practice Test 30 — 15 Questions

Question 1

Examine the following configuration:

policy-map QUEUE
 class GOLD
  bandwidth percent 25
  queue-limit 64 packets
 class SILVER
  bandwidth percent 25
  queue-limit 128 packets
 class class-default
  fair-queue

interface GigabitEthernet0/2
 service-policy output QUEUE

Which statement about this configuration is true?

Accepted Answer

The GOLD class has a smaller queue limit than SILVER, which may cause more packet drops for GOLD traffic under congestion.. The GOLD class has a queue-limit of 64 packets, while the SILVER class has a queue-limit of 128 packets. Under congestion, the smaller queue for GOLD will fill up faster, leading to more tail drops for GOLD traffic, even though both classes are allocated the same bandwidth percentage. This demonstrates that queue-limit directly affects drop probability, not bandwidth allocation.

Answer

The SILVER class will always receive more bandwidth than GOLD because of its larger queue limit.

Answer

The configuration is invalid because 'queue-limit' cannot be used with 'bandwidth percent' in the same class.

Answer

The 'fair-queue' command in class-default will override the bandwidth allocation for GOLD and SILVER.

Question 2

Drag and drop the steps of IP SLA scheduling with frequency and lifetime into the correct order, from first to last.

Accepted Answer

Create the IP SLA operation. First, create the IP SLA operation. Then configure the frequency (how often probes are sent). Next, set the lifetime (how long the operation runs). After that, schedule the operation with a start time. Finally, verify the scheduling parameters are active.

Question 3

Which three statements about IP SLA probe types and their characteristics are true? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

The UDP jitter operation measures one-way delay, jitter, and packet loss in both directions.. Different IP SLA probe types measure different network metrics. UDP jitter measures one-way delay, jitter, and packet loss. ICMP echo measures round-trip time and packet loss. TCP connect measures the time to establish a TCP connection. HTTP probes measure the time to retrieve a web page. The probe type determines what metrics are available and how the probe is configured.

Answer

The HTTP operation measures the time to resolve the DNS name of the target web server.

Answer

The ICMP echo operation requires the IP SLA responder to be enabled on the target device.

Question 4

What is the default OSPF hello interval on an Ethernet link?

Accepted Answer

10 seconds. OSPF uses different hello intervals depending on the network type. On broadcast and point-to-point networks (like Ethernet), the default hello interval is 10 seconds.

Answer

30 seconds

Answer

40 seconds

Answer

5 seconds

Question 5

Drag and drop each CPU feature on the left to its matching virtualization purpose on the right.

Accepted Answer

VT-x: Enables hardware-assisted virtualization for Intel CPUs. VT-x enables hardware-assisted virtualization for Intel CPUs, EPT reduces memory overhead for nested page tables, SR-IOV allows direct device assignment to VMs, AMD-V is AMD's equivalent of VT-x, and VPID improves TLB management across VM switches.

Question 6

Which two statements about IP SLA probe scheduling and operation states are true? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

The 'schedule' command with 'start-time now' causes the IP SLA operation to begin immediately.. IP SLA operations can be scheduled to start immediately or at a specific time, and they can run indefinitely or for a fixed duration. The 'life' parameter controls how long the operation runs. An operation in 'active' state is currently sending probes. The 'pending' state means the operation is configured but not yet scheduled. The 'life forever' command makes the operation run until manually stopped.

Answer

The 'life' parameter in the IP SLA configuration sets the frequency at which probes are sent.

Answer

An IP SLA operation remains in the 'pending' state until the 'start-time' is reached, even if the configuration is complete.

Answer

The 'schedule' command with 'life forever' causes the operation to stop after a single probe.

Question 7

Which two statements about Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors are true? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Type 1 hypervisors have direct access to physical hardware resources.. Type 1 hypervisors run directly on hardware and are commonly used in data centers; Type 2 hypervisors run on a host OS and are often used for testing or desktop virtualization. Option A is correct because Type 1 hypervisors have direct access to hardware resources, which improves performance. Option D is correct because Type 2 hypervisors rely on the host OS for resource management, adding overhead. Option B is incorrect because Type 2 hypervisors do not run directly on hardware. Option C is incorrect because Type 1 hypervisors do not require a host OS. Option E is incorrect because Type 1 hypervisors can support multiple VMs, not just one.

Answer

Type 2 hypervisors run directly on the physical server without a host operating system.

Answer

Type 1 hypervisors require a host operating system for resource management.

Answer

Type 1 hypervisors can only support a single virtual machine per physical host.

Question 8

A network engineer is configuring model-driven telemetry on a Cisco IOS-XE device that is part of a DNA Center managed fabric. The telemetry subscription configuration is:

telemetry ietf subscription 101
 encoding encode-kvgpb
 filter xpath /process-cpu-ios-xe-oper:cpu-usage/cpu-utilization
 stream yang-push
 update-policy periodic 500
 receiver ip address 10.10.10.10  port 5555 protocol grpc-tcp

What is the purpose of the 'encoding encode-kvgpb' line?

Accepted Answer

It specifies that the data should be encoded using Google Protocol Buffers (protobuf) with key-value pairs.. The 'encoding encode-kvgpb' specifies that the telemetry data should be encoded using KVGPB (Key-Value Google Protocol Buffers), which is a compact binary encoding used for efficient data transmission.

Answer

It sets the encoding to JSON format for the telemetry data.

Answer

It enables encryption of the telemetry data.

Answer

It defines the compression algorithm for the telemetry stream.

Question 9

Which two statements about Cisco DNA Center integration with Cisco SD-Access are true? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Cisco DNA Center is used to design and provision the SD-Access fabric, including defining virtual networks and host pools.. DNA Center is the management and automation platform for SD-Access. The correct answers describe its role in fabric design and policy enforcement. The incorrect options misrepresent the control plane (LISP, not OSPF), the border role (fabric exit, not WAN), and the device role (edge, not core).

Answer

Cisco DNA Center automatically configures OSPF as the control plane protocol for SD-Access.

Answer

Cisco DNA Center requires a separate WAN controller to manage SD-Access border nodes.

Answer

Cisco DNA Center configures SD-Access edge nodes as the core routers of the network.

Question 10

Which three statements about IP SLA threshold monitoring and reaction configuration are true? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

The 'threshold' command sets the rising threshold that triggers a reaction when exceeded.. IP SLA allows configuring rising and falling thresholds to trigger events. The reaction can be tied to a tracking object, which can then influence routing decisions. The 'connection-loss' type triggers when all probes fail. The 'timeout' reaction is not a valid type; the correct keyword is 'timeout' within the threshold configuration. The 'react' command can also monitor jitter values.

Answer

The 'reaction' command supports a 'timeout' type that triggers when the probe response time exceeds a configured value.

Answer

The 'reaction' command can only monitor round-trip time and cannot be used for jitter or packet loss.

Question 11

Which BGP attribute is preferred when it has the lowest value?

Accepted Answer

MED. BGP uses multiple attributes to determine the best path. The WEIGHT attribute is Cisco-specific and is preferred when it has the highest value, not lowest. The LOCAL_PREF attribute is preferred with the highest value. The MED (Multi-Exit Discriminator) attribute is preferred with the lowest value. The ORIGIN attribute prefers IGP over EGP and incomplete.

Answer

WEIGHT

Answer

LOCAL_PREF

Answer

ORIGIN

Question 12

Which two statements about Cisco DNA Center automation workflows are true? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Cisco DNA Center supports Plug and Play (PnP) for zero-touch deployment of new switches and routers.. Cisco DNA Center uses intent-based networking to automate network changes. The correct answers highlight key automation capabilities: PnP for zero-touch provisioning and the ability to push configuration templates via CLI or REST API. The wrong answers misstate the role of APIC-EM (a predecessor), the GUI-only limitation, and the integration with ISE for policy rather than device discovery.

Answer

Cisco DNA Center requires an external APIC-EM controller to manage device discovery and inventory.

Answer

Cisco DNA Center automation is limited to GUI-based workflows and does not support any programmatic interfaces.

Answer

Cisco DNA Center uses Cisco ISE as the primary source for device discovery and network topology mapping.

Question 13

Which three statements about hypervisor security and isolation are true? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

A VM escape attack occurs when an attacker breaks out of a virtual machine to access the hypervisor or other VMs.. Hypervisor security is critical to prevent VM escape and ensure isolation. Option A is correct because VM escape is a serious vulnerability where code in a VM breaks out to the hypervisor. Option C is correct because the hypervisor should enforce strict isolation between VMs to prevent data leakage. Option D is correct because keeping the hypervisor patched and minimizing its attack surface are key security practices. Option B is incorrect because VMs are not inherently isolated from each other; isolation depends on hypervisor design. Option E is incorrect because VMs do not have direct access to physical hardware; the hypervisor mediates access.

Answer

Virtual machines are inherently isolated from each other and do not require any additional security measures.

Answer

Virtual machines have direct access to physical hardware resources such as CPU and memory.

Question 14

Drag and drop the steps of Cisco DNA Center assurance data collection workflow into the correct order, from first to last.

Accepted Answer

Devices stream telemetry to DNA Center. Assurance begins with network devices streaming telemetry data (e.g., NetFlow, SNMP, syslog) to DNA Center. DNA Center processes and correlates the data to build a baseline of normal behavior. It then applies machine learning models to detect anomalies. Alerts and insights are generated for potential issues. Finally, the dashboard displays health scores and recommended actions for the administrator.

Question 15

Which two statements about Cisco Aironet 2800/3800 series APs are true? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

These APs support 802.11ac Wave 2 with MU-MIMO technology.. The 2800/3800 series APs are 802.11ac Wave 2 devices that support MU-MIMO and have integrated antennas; they do not support 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) and are not modular with field-replaceable radios.

Answer

These APs are Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) capable.

Answer

These APs support modular field-replaceable radios for future upgrades.

Answer

These APs can operate in both local and FlexConnect modes.