AZ-104 Practice Test 5 — 10 Questions

Question 1

A route table on a subnet contains this user-defined route:
- 0.0.0.0/0 -> Virtual appliance 10.0.0.4
The subnet is peered to another VNet with address space 10.2.0.0/16. A VM in the subnet sends traffic to 10.2.2.7, and Network Watcher shows the next hop as Virtual network peering instead of the appliance. What explains this result?

Accepted Answer

The peering route is more specific than the default route, so it is selected first.. Azure uses the longest prefix match to determine the next hop for traffic. The user-defined route (UDR) for 0.0.0.0/0 is a default route, while the peering route for 10.2.0.0/16 is more specific. Since 10.2.2.7 falls within the 10.2.0.0/16 range, the peering route is preferred over the default route, directing traffic through the VNet peering instead of the virtual appliance.

Answer

User-defined routes never apply to peered networks.

Answer

NSG rules always override any route table entry.

Answer

Peering only works when both VNets are in the same region.

Question 2

An operations team wants device-generated log messages collected centrally so engineers can review interface changes, warnings, and errors from one place. Which technology is most directly associated with that goal?

Accepted Answer

Syslog. Syslog (A) is the standard protocol for collecting and centralizing log messages from network devices, servers, and other infrastructure. It allows engineers to forward interface changes, warnings, and errors to a central syslog server, enabling unified review and alerting. This directly matches the goal of centralized device-generated log collection.

Answer

NetFlow

Answer

DHCP relay

Answer

Port security

Question 3

An external consultant must access a resource group in your tenant using the consultant's existing work account. You want to avoid creating a separate username and password pair. Which two actions should the administrator take? Select two.

Accepted Answer

Invite the consultant as a guest user in Microsoft Entra ID.. Option A is correct because inviting the consultant as a guest user in Microsoft Entra ID (formerly Azure AD) allows the consultant to use their existing work account (external identity) without creating a new username/password. This leverages B2B collaboration, which uses the consultant's home directory for authentication, and the guest user object is created in your tenant to represent them.

Answer

Create a new member user account with an internal password.

Answer

Add the consultant to the Global Administrator role.

Answer

Share the subscription ID and tenant ID only.

Question 4

An application subnet has an NSG outbound rule Deny-HTTPS at priority 200 for TCP 443 to Any. A second outbound rule Allow-HTTPS-API at priority 300 permits TCP 443 from ASG-Web to ASG-Api. Web servers can reach other ports but not the API. What change should the administrator make?

Accepted Answer

Change the allow rule to a higher priority than 200, such as 100.. Option B is correct because NSG rules are evaluated in priority order, with lower numbers having higher precedence. The Deny-HTTPS rule at priority 200 blocks all outbound TCP 443 traffic, including traffic from ASG-Web to ASG-Api. To allow the specific traffic, the Allow-HTTPS-API rule must have a lower priority number (e.g., 100) so it is evaluated before the deny rule, permitting the desired traffic while the deny rule still blocks other outbound HTTPS traffic.

Answer

Delete the deny rule so the allow rule can be evaluated.

Answer

Change the destination from ASG-Api to the entire subnet address range.

Answer

Change the protocol from TCP to Any so the rule matches more traffic.

Question 5

An Azure Automation account runs PowerShell runbooks that must authenticate to Azure resources without embedded secrets. The automation account is recreated periodically during deployment, and the identity must continue to work after recreation without reissuing credentials. Which identity should you use?

Accepted Answer

A user-assigned managed identity.. A user-assigned managed identity (B) is the correct choice because it is an independent Azure resource that persists even when the Automation account is recreated. Unlike a system-assigned managed identity, which is tied to the lifecycle of the Automation account and is deleted when the account is deleted, a user-assigned managed identity can be reassigned to the new Automation account after recreation without requiring new credentials. This allows the runbooks to authenticate seamlessly using the same identity, avoiding embedded secrets.

Answer

A system-assigned managed identity.

Answer

A service principal with a client secret stored in Key Vault.

Answer

A shared access signature token.

Question 6

An enterprise has a management group named Corp that contains all production and sandbox subscriptions. An Entra ID group named Auditors must be able to read resources in every current subscription under Corp and in any subscription added later. Which two actions should the administrator take? Select two.

Accepted Answer

Assign the Reader role to the Auditors group at the Corp management group scope.. Assigning the Reader role at the Corp management group scope ensures that the Auditors group inherits read permissions to all current and future subscriptions under Corp, because Azure RBAC permissions assigned at a management group are inherited by all child subscriptions and resource groups. This meets the requirement for both existing and future subscriptions without manual updates.

Answer

Assign the Reader role directly to every subscription under Corp.

Answer

Assign the Reader role to the Auditors group at one resource group scope.

Answer

Create an Azure Policy assignment to grant read access to all subscriptions.

Question 7

An application in a VNet must access an Azure Storage account over a private IP address. Public network access is disabled on the storage account, and the app must resolve the normal blob FQDN to that private address only from within the VNet. What should the administrator configure?

Accepted Answer

A private endpoint for the blob service and a linked private DNS zone for the VNet.. Option B is correct because a private endpoint assigns the storage account a private IP from the VNet, and linking a private DNS zone (e.g., `privatelink.blob.core.windows.net`) to the VNet ensures that the blob FQDN resolves to that private IP only from within the VNet. This meets the requirement of disabling public network access while providing private connectivity and DNS resolution.

Answer

A service endpoint on the subnet and a storage account firewall rule for the subnet.

Answer

Allow trusted Microsoft services on the storage account and keep the public endpoint enabled.

Answer

Create a public DNS record that maps the blob FQDN to the storage account's public IP address.

Question 8

An Azure application and an Azure Automation account need Azure access without any stored secrets. The same identity should be reusable and should not require manual secret rotation. Which two identity choices meet the requirement? Select two.

Accepted Answer

System-assigned managed identity attached to the resource that needs access.. System-assigned managed identity (Option A) is correct because it is automatically created and tied to a specific Azure resource, such as a virtual machine or App Service, and provides an Azure AD identity that can be used to authenticate to any service supporting Azure AD authentication without storing any secrets. The identity is managed by Azure, eliminating the need for manual secret rotation, and it is automatically deleted when the resource is deleted, ensuring no orphaned secrets.

Answer

Service principal with a client secret stored in an app setting.

Answer

Shared administrator username and password stored in a Key Vault secret.

Answer

SAS token generated once and reused indefinitely by both resources.

Question 9

An employee deleted one spreadsheet from a Windows VM that is protected by Azure Backup. The VM must stay online while the administrator recovers only that file. Which two restore methods are supported? Select two.

Accepted Answer

Use file recovery from the recovery point in the Azure portal.. Option A is correct because Azure Backup's file-level recovery feature in the Azure portal allows you to mount a recovery point as a drive on the running Windows VM, enabling you to browse and copy individual files without restoring the entire VM. This method supports selective file recovery while the VM remains online, meeting the requirement. Option B is also correct because the file recovery script (or PowerShell mount workflow) performs the same mount operation programmatically, providing an alternative way to access and recover the specific spreadsheet from the recovery point.

Answer

Restore the entire VM to a new VM and copy the file back manually.

Answer

Restore the disks from backup and attach them to the running VM.

Answer

Use Azure Site Recovery failover to expose the file.

Question 10

Based on the exhibit, what should the administrator add to send an email and SMS notification?

Accepted Answer

An action group with email and SMS receivers.. To send email and SMS notifications from an Azure Monitor alert, you must configure an action group. An action group defines the notification channels (e.g., email, SMS, webhook) and their respective receivers. When the alert rule triggers, Azure Monitor invokes the action group to deliver the notifications. Without an action group, the alert rule has no mechanism to send email or SMS.

Answer

A Log Analytics workspace connected to the virtual machine.

Answer

A backup recovery point for the virtual machine.

Answer

A private endpoint for the virtual machine.