CompTIA · Free Practice Questions · Last reviewed May 2026

220-1101 Exam Questions and Answers

30 real exam-style questions organised by domain, each with the correct answer highlighted and a plain-English explanation of why it's right — and why the others are wrong.

90 exam questions
90 min time limit
Pass at 675 / 1000
5 exam domains
1

Domain 1: Mobile Devices

All Mobile Devices questions

A user reports that the touchscreen on their smartphone is unresponsive in the bottom-left corner but works everywhere else. Which component is most likely failing?

A

Dead pixels

B

Digitizer failure

The digitizer is the touch-sensitive layer that registers touches. A localized unresponsive area indicates a partial digitizer failure, which is common in damaged screens.

C

LCD backlight issue

D

Pending OS update

Why: The touchscreen uses a digitizer to detect touch input. When only certain areas are unresponsive, it typically indicates a digitizer failure rather than an LCD or OS issue. Dead pixels affect display only, not touch. The backlight affects overall screen brightness. An OS update might cause temporary glitches but would not result in a localized dead zone.

A user reports that their smartphone battery drains significantly faster after a recent OS update. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to address this issue?

A

Replace the battery with a new one

B

Perform a factory reset and restore from backup

C

Check the battery usage statistics in the settings menu

This is the correct first step because it allows the technician to identify if a specific app or service is consuming excessive battery after the update.

D

Reinstall the operating system using the latest firmware

Why: After an OS update, battery drain is often caused by misbehaving apps or background processes that were not optimized. Checking the battery usage statistics in settings allows the technician to identify apps consuming excessive power. Replacing the battery or restoring the device should be considered only after verifying that no app or setting is causing the drain.

A user's smartphone running Android is unable to connect to any Wi-Fi network. The Wi-Fi toggle is grayed out and cannot be turned on. The technician has tried a soft reset and checked that Airplane Mode is off. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

Faulty Wi-Fi antenna or module

Physical damage or failure of the internal Wi-Fi antenna or the Wi-Fi chip can cause the radio to be completely unavailable, resulting in a grayed-out toggle.

B

Corrupted network configuration

C

Incorrect date and time

D

Disabled Wi-Fi adapter in BIOS

Why: A grayed-out Wi-Fi toggle that cannot be enabled often indicates a hardware failure of the Wi-Fi antenna or the Wi-Fi chip module. Software issues such as network configuration or date/time usually do not prevent the toggle from being interacted with. An incorrect date/time might cause authentication issues but would not gray out the toggle. BIOS settings are not applicable to a smartphone. The most probable cause is a hardware component failure.

A user's iPhone will not charge even though the screen is cracked but still displays properly and responds to touch. The technician has cleaned the Lightning port and verified the charging cable and power adapter work with another device. Which component most likely needs replacement?

A

Replace the LCD assembly

B

Replace the digitizer

C

Replace the charging port flex cable

The charging port flex cable connects the Lightning port to the logic board; it is a common failure point separate from the screen.

D

Replace the battery

Why: In iPhones, the screen assembly includes the LCD (display) and digitizer (touch) but the charging port is a separate flex cable assembly. Since the screen works despite the crack, and the charging port is clean, the charging port flex cable is the likely culprit. The battery may be fine if it held a charge before, but the issue is no charging at all.

A user reports that their laptop's touchpad is not working. The technician checks Device Manager and sees the touchpad is not listed. The function key (Fn + F7) that enables/disables the touchpad does not seem to respond. The technician has rebooted the laptop. Which of the following should the technician try NEXT?

A

Update the touchpad driver via Windows Update

B

Check BIOS settings for touchpad enable/disable

The BIOS/UEFI often has a setting to enable or disable the touchpad. If it is disabled, the touchpad will not appear in the OS or respond to function keys. Checking BIOS is the appropriate next step.

C

Replace the touchpad hardware

D

Run the System File Checker (sfc /scannow)

Why: If a touchpad is not detected in Device Manager and the function key does not respond, the next logical step is to check the system BIOS/UEFI settings. Many laptops allow enabling or disabling the touchpad at the hardware level via BIOS. If the touchpad is disabled there, it will not appear in the OS. Updating drivers (A) is premature if the device is not listed. Replacing hardware (C) should be a last resort. Running SFC (D) scans system files, which is unlikely to fix a hardware detection issue.

A user's Android smartphone screen is flickering intermittently and occasionally goes black for a few seconds before returning. The phone has not been dropped or exposed to moisture. The technician has performed a factory reset, but the issue persists. Which component is the MOST likely cause of the problem?

A

Digitizer

B

Display assembly

Correct. The display assembly includes the LCD/OLED panel and the backlight. A hardware fault in this component is the most likely cause of screen flickering and blackouts, especially since a factory reset did not fix it.

C

Battery

D

Motherboard

Why: Since the issue is related to the display and a factory reset did not resolve it, the problem is hardware-related. The display assembly (LCD or OLED panel) is the component that directly controls the image on the screen. Flickering and going black are classic symptoms of a failing display panel or a loose internal connection to the display. The digitizer only handles touch input, the battery would cause power-related issues, and a motherboard failure would likely cause more systemic problems.

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2

Domain 2: Networking

All Networking questions

A technician is adding a wireless access point (AP) in an outbuilding connected via Ethernet to the main office network (192.168.1.0/24). After configuring the AP with a static IP of 192.168.1.250, clients can connect to Wi-Fi but cannot access the internet. The main office devices have no issues. What is the most likely cause?

A

The SSID on the new AP differs from the main network's SSID

B

The new AP has its DHCP server enabled

If the AP's DHCP server is active, it will assign IP addresses that may not have the correct default gateway or DNS settings, or it may conflict with the main DHCP server, preventing proper routing to the internet.

C

The Ethernet cable connecting the AP is a crossover cable

D

The switch feeding the AP is not configured for VLAN 1

Why: When an access point has its router functionality or DHCP server enabled, it can assign IP addresses from a different subnet or conflict with the existing DHCP server, breaking internet connectivity. Disabling the DHCP server on the AP and ensuring it is in bridge mode resolves the issue.

A small office has a DHCP server that assigns IP addresses in the range 192.168.1.100 to 192.168.1.200. A file server needs a static IP address of 192.168.1.10. Which method should the technician use to ensure the server always receives that IP address without manually configuring the network adapter on the server?

A

Create a DHCP reservation on the router for the server's MAC address

This is the best practice because it combines the convenience of DHCP with the certainty of a fixed IP, and it is managed centrally on the router.

B

Configure the server with a static IP address of 192.168.1.10 in the operating system settings

C

Change the DHCP range to 192.168.1.11-200 so that .10 is excluded

D

Set up a port forwarding rule for the server

Why: A DHCP reservation (also called static DHCP) allows the server to keep using DHCP while ensuring it always receives the same IP address based on its MAC address. This prevents address conflicts and centralizes IP management. Manually setting a static IP on the server outside the DHCP range could cause conflicts if not done carefully, and changing the DHCP scope is unnecessary.

A company has a router with four Ethernet ports. They need to connect 12 wired devices in the same LAN segment. All devices must receive IP addresses from the same DHCP server running on the router. Which device should the technician add?

A

Switch

A switch adds multiple ports and keeps all devices on the same LAN segment, allowing them to obtain IP addresses from the router's DHCP server.

B

Hub

C

Access point

D

Modem

Why: A switch expands the number of available wired ports and operates at Layer 2, forwarding frames within the same broadcast domain. This allows all connected devices to communicate with the router's DHCP server and be on the same LAN segment. A hub would also expand ports but is inefficient and rarely used. An access point provides wireless connectivity, not wired. A modem connects to an ISP and does not expand LAN ports.

A technician installs a new VoIP phone that receives power via PoE from a managed switch. The phone powers on but cannot register with the call server. A PC connected to the phone's passthrough port obtains an IP address and accesses the internet normally. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the phone's failure?

A

The switch port is configured with a voice VLAN that the phone is not using

B

The switch port has a VLAN mismatch for the voice VLAN

A VLAN mismatch between the switch port (data VLAN only) and the phone (expecting voice VLAN) prevents the phone from communicating on the correct network.

C

The Ethernet cable between the switch and the phone is faulty

D

The phone's MAC address is filtered on the network

Why: VoIP phones often require a separate VLAN for voice traffic. If the switch port is configured only for the data VLAN, the phone will not receive the correct IP address or access the voice network. The PC works because it is on the data VLAN. Duplex or cable issues would typically affect both devices, and MAC filtering would prevent the PC from working as well.

A network technician is troubleshooting a connectivity issue in a small office. A user's computer obtains an IP address starting with 169.254.x.x. The network uses DHCP from a router with IP 192.168.1.1. The technician checks the cable and sees the link light is on. The computer was working yesterday. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

The DHCP server's IP address changed

B

The network cable is a crossover cable

C

The DHCP server has exhausted its IP pool

When the DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses, new requests (or renewal attempts) fail, leading to APIPA. This is a common issue when many devices connect without proper IP address management.

D

The computer's network adapter is faulty

Why: An IP address beginning with 169.254.x.x (APIPA) indicates that the computer failed to obtain an address from a DHCP server and self-assigned an address. The most likely cause is that the DHCP server has exhausted its IP address pool (e.g., many new devices joined or leases expired without renewal). Changing the DHCP server's IP (A) would cause a different issue (no server at all). A crossover cable (B) is unlikely to cause APIPA because modern NICs support Auto-MDI/X. A faulty network adapter (D) could cause APIPA, but the link light is on and it worked yesterday, so it is less likely than a DHCP pool issue.

A technician is replacing a 10/100 Mbps network switch with a new Gigabit switch. After connecting all devices, the technician notices that the link LEDs on several ports are showing amber instead of green. The switch documentation states that green indicates a 1000 Mbps link, and amber indicates a 10/100 Mbps link. All connected devices support Gigabit Ethernet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A

The devices are configured for half-duplex, causing auto-negotiation to fail.

B

The power supply of the switch is insufficient for all ports.

C

The Ethernet cables between the switch and devices are faulty or of poor quality.

Correct. A faulty or low-quality cable is the most common reason for a Gigabit connection to fall back to 100 Mbps. The cable may have damage or exceed length specifications, forcing auto-negotiation to a lower speed.

D

The switch is not properly configured for Gigabit mode.

Why: If both the switch and the connected devices support Gigabit Ethernet, but the link is only establishing at 100 Mbps, the most common cause is a degraded or faulty Ethernet cable that cannot reliably support Gigabit speeds. Gigabit Ethernet is more sensitive to cable quality and length. Cat5e cables can handle gigabit, but if the cable is damaged, too long, or of poor quality, the switch and NIC will fall back to a lower speed (100 Mbps). Auto-negotiation should match speeds, but it will negotiate to the highest reliable speed. Replacing the cable with a known good Cat5e or Cat6 cable typically resolves the issue.

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3

Domain 3: Hardware

All Hardware questions

A technician is assembling a workstation for video editing. The motherboard has two DIMM slots and supports dual-channel DDR4-3200 memory. The user requests 32 GB of RAM. Which memory configuration will provide the best performance?

A

One 32 GB DDR4-3200 module

B

Two 16 GB DDR4-2666 modules

C

Two 16 GB DDR4-3200 modules

Two identical high-speed modules enable dual-channel mode at the rated 3200 MT/s, providing the best performance for video editing workloads.

D

One 16 GB DDR4-3200 and one 16 GB DDR4-2666 module

Why: Dual-channel architecture benefits from matching modules in both slots. Using two identical DDR4-3200 sticks ensures maximum bandwidth and speed. Single-channel or mismatched speeds will reduce performance, especially in memory-intensive tasks like video editing.

A technician is building a desktop computer and applies thermal paste to the CPU before installing the heatsink. The technician uses significantly more paste than recommended. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of this action?

A

The CPU will overheat because excess paste reduces heat transfer efficiency

Too much paste creates a thick layer that impedes heat transfer from the CPU to the heatsink, leading to higher temperatures and potential thermal throttling or damage.

B

The thermal paste will cause a short circuit on the motherboard

C

The CPU will run cooler due to better coverage

D

There will be no noticeable effect on system performance

Why: Excessive thermal paste can act as an insulator rather than a conductor, trapping heat and causing the CPU to overheat. The paste may also spill over onto the CPU socket or motherboard contacts, but the primary risk is reduced heat transfer efficiency. Proper application requires only a small pea-sized dot in the center.

A technician is upgrading a desktop computer's storage. The motherboard has one M.2 slot that supports both SATA and NVMe protocols. The user wants the fastest possible boot drive. Which type of M.2 drive should the technician select?

A

SATA M.2

B

NVMe M.2

NVMe M.2 drives connect via PCIe, supporting speeds of several GB/s. They are the fastest M.2 option and ideal for a boot drive demanding high performance.

C

mSATA

D

2.5" SSD

Why: NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) M.2 drives use PCIe lanes, offering significantly higher read/write speeds compared to SATA M.2 drives, which use the slower SATA III interface. mSATA and 2.5" SSDs are not M.2 form factors and are generally slower than NVMe. For the fastest boot drive, an NVMe M.2 drive is the correct choice.

A technician needs to install a PCIe x4 network adapter into a desktop computer. The motherboard has the following available slots: one PCIe x16 slot (occupied by a graphics card), two PCIe x1 slots, and one PCIe x8 slot. Which slot can the technician use to install the x4 card?

A

Any of the PCIe x1 slots

B

The PCIe x8 slot

The PCIe x8 slot is physically larger than the x4 card's connector and will accept it, running the card at x4 speed.

C

The PCIe x16 slot after removing the graphics card

D

A PCI slot

Why: PCIe slots are backward compatible and forward compatible in terms of size. A PCIe x4 card can physically fit into any larger slot (x8 or x16) and will operate at the lower lane count if the motherboard supports it. It will not fit into a x1 slot. Therefore, using the x8 slot is correct.

A technician is building a high-performance gaming PC. The motherboard has four DDR4 DIMM slots, and the technician installs two 8 GB modules in slots A2 and B2 (dual-channel configuration). The PC boots and works, but the BIOS shows only 8 GB of RAM. The technician reseats the modules and tries different slots, but the issue persists. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

The RAM modules are not compatible with the motherboard

B

The CPU cooler is installed too tightly, causing memory controller issues

C

Windows 10 has a memory limit for the edition installed

D

One of the RAM modules is faulty

A faulty RAM module will not be detected by the system. Since the technician has tried reseating and different slots, the most logical conclusion is that one of the modules is defective.

Why: The system recognizes only 8 GB out of 16 GB, even after reseating and trying different slots. The most likely cause is that one of the RAM modules is faulty. If a module is defective, it will not be detected. Incompatible modules (A) would usually prevent the system from booting at all. CPU cooler too tight (B) is possible but rare, and would more likely cause random crashes than under-detection. Windows edition memory limits (C) apply only to the OS, not BIOS, and affect maximum memory, not detection of installed capacity.

A technician is building a desktop computer and has installed a SATA solid-state drive (SSD). After connecting the SATA data cable and power cable, the computer boots to the BIOS, but the SSD is not listed in the SATA devices. The technician has verified that the SATA cable is securely connected to both the drive and the motherboard and that the power supply is functioning. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?

A

Format the SSD using a different computer.

B

Check the BIOS settings to ensure the SATA port is enabled.

Correct. SATA ports can be disabled in the BIOS. If the port is disabled, the drive will not be detected. Checking the BIOS configuration is the appropriate next step after verifying physical connections.

C

Update the motherboard chipset drivers.

D

Replace the CMOS battery.

Why: If the drive is not detected in BIOS but all physical connections are secure, the most common next step is to check the BIOS settings to ensure the SATA port is enabled. Many motherboards allow individual SATA ports to be disabled. The technician should enter the BIOS and verify that the port to which the SSD is connected is enabled. Formatting, driver updates, and CMOS battery are not relevant at this stage as the drive is not even detected in BIOS.

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4

Domain 4: Virtualization and Cloud Computing

All Virtualization and Cloud Computing questions

A company wants to migrate its on-premises email server to the cloud. The IT director insists that the new solution require no management of the underlying operating system, application server, or patching. Which cloud service model should the organization choose?

A

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

B

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C

Software as a Service (SaaS)

SaaS delivers a complete, ready-to-use application. For email, Microsoft 365 or Google Workspace are examples. The provider handles all backend management, including OS patches, making it ideal for this requirement.

D

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

Why: SaaS provides fully managed applications delivered over the internet. The customer focuses on using the software while the provider handles all infrastructure, OS, and application maintenance. This matches the requirement of zero OS or patching management.

A company wants to migrate a custom-developed web application to the cloud. The IT team needs full control over the operating system, middleware, and runtime environment but does not want to manage physical hardware or the underlying virtualization layer. Which cloud service model should the organization choose?

A

Software as a Service (SaaS)

B

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

IaaS delivers virtual machines and storage where the customer can install and configure the OS, middleware, and applications as needed, while the provider handles physical infrastructure.

D

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

Why: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides virtualized computing resources (e.g., virtual machines) where the customer controls the operating system, storage, and deployed applications, while the provider manages the physical hardware and hypervisor. Platform as a Service (PaaS) abstracts the OS and middleware, limiting control. Software as a Service (SaaS) offers fully managed applications.

A company hosts a critical database server on-premises. They want to migrate to a cloud solution that allows them to retain full administrative control over the operating system, database software, and security patches, but they do not want to manage the physical server hardware, rack space, or network cabling. Which cloud service model should they choose?

A

IaaS

With IaaS, the cloud provider handles physical hardware, and the customer manages the OS, middleware, and applications. This fits the requirement for full administrative control without hardware management.

B

PaaS

C

SaaS

D

DaaS

Why: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. The cloud provider manages the physical infrastructure, while the customer has control over the operating system, storage, and deployed applications. This matches the requirement of full control over the OS and database software without managing hardware. PaaS abstracts the OS and runtime, limiting control. SaaS offers no control over the underlying system. DaaS is a specific desktop virtualization model.

A company runs its e-commerce platform on a private cloud but expects a large traffic spike during a promotional event. They want to automatically add additional virtual servers from a public cloud provider during the peak and release them afterward. Which cloud computing characteristic best describes this capability?

A

High availability

B

Elasticity

Elasticity allows the infrastructure to automatically expand and contract computing resources in response to workload changes.

C

Fault tolerance

D

Resource pooling

Why: Elasticity is the ability of a cloud system to automatically scale resources up or down based on demand. Cloud bursting is a specific use of elasticity where a private cloud bursts into a public cloud for extra capacity. High availability focuses on uptime, fault tolerance on surviving failures, and resource pooling on multi-tenancy.

A company uses a private cloud with 10 virtual servers running on a single hypervisor host. The VMs are configured with dynamic memory allocation. Recently, performance has degraded, and the hypervisor shows 90% memory utilization. The IT team wants to add two more VMs without purchasing additional hardware. Which of the following is the most likely limiting factor?

A

The hypervisor's CPU core count

B

The storage I/O bandwidth

C

The total physical RAM installed in the host

With 90% memory utilization, the hypervisor has very little free RAM. Adding more VMs will require memory overcommit, which relies on swapping to disk, causing severe slowdowns. Physical RAM is the likely limiting factor.

D

The network interface card speed

Why: Dynamic memory allows memory to be overcommitted, but if the host's physical RAM is already at 90% utilization, adding more VMs will force the hypervisor to use disk swap space, severely degrading performance. CPU (A) and storage I/O (B) could also be limiting, but the given symptom is high memory utilization. NIC speed (D) is unlikely to be the immediate limiting factor for VM addition. Therefore, the total physical RAM (C) is the most immediate bottleneck.

A company runs multiple virtual machines (VMs) on a single hypervisor host for development and testing. Users report that the VMs are performing poorly. The administrator checks the host and sees that CPU utilization is at 40% and memory utilization is at 50%, but disk I/O latency is extremely high. The host has a single SATA SSD that stores all VM disk files. Which of the following actions would MOST likely improve performance?

A

Add more RAM to the hypervisor host.

B

Add additional CPU cores to the hypervisor host.

C

Use a separate SSD for each VM to distribute I/O load.

Correct. By isolating each VM's disk files on separate SSDs, the I/O workload is distributed, reducing contention and latency. This addresses the root cause of the disk bottleneck.

D

Enable memory overcommitment on the hypervisor.

Why: High disk I/O latency indicates that the storage subsystem is the bottleneck. Since all VMs share a single SATA SSD, they are competing for I/O operations, causing contention and slow performance. The best solution is to distribute the load by using separate SSDs for different VMs or a faster storage solution (e.g., RAID, NVMe, or SAN). Adding more RAM or CPU would not address the disk bottleneck, and enabling memory overcommitment could actually increase disk swapping, making things worse. The most effective action is to use a separate SSD for each VM or upgrade to a high-performance storage array.

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5

Domain 5: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

All Hardware and Network Troubleshooting questions

After a power outage, a desktop computer will not power on. The PSU fan does not spin, and no LEDs are lit. The technician tests the power supply with a PSU tester; all voltages are within spec. A multimeter reading at the motherboard's power button header shows 3.3V when the button is pressed. The power supply is also confirmed to work when tested in another system. What is the most likely cause?

A

The motherboard has failed

Given that the PSU is good and the power button sends the correct signal, the motherboard is the remaining component that controls the power-on sequence. A damaged motherboard (e.g., from a power surge) will not start the system.

B

The power supply is still faulty despite the tester showing good voltages

C

The power button is faulty

D

The BIOS has become corrupted

Why: The PSU is functional (confirmed by tester and working in another system). The power switch circuit is producing the correct signal (3.3V). This points to a motherboard failure, likely the power regulation circuitry or the chipset responsible for initiating the power-up sequence. A failed motherboard cannot properly process the power-on signal to start the PSU.

A network printer is set to a static IP address. Users report that print jobs spool on their workstations but never print. The technician confirms the printer is powered on, the network cable is connected, and the printer's self-test page prints successfully. The technician can ping the printer's IP address from a workstation. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A

The printer's print queue is paused or the printer is in an 'Offline' state on the print server

This is the likely cause because the printer is online and responsive, but the print server may have the queue paused or set to offline, preventing jobs from reaching the printer.

B

The printer driver on the workstations is incorrect

C

The printer's static IP address conflicts with another device on the network

D

The network cable is faulty

Why: Since the printer is reachable (ping works) and the self-test page prints, the printer hardware and basic network connectivity are functional. Print jobs spooling but not printing often indicates that the printer queue on the server or the printer itself is paused, out of paper, or in an error state that does not affect the self-test. The most common cause in such a scenario is the print queue being paused, which requires checking the printer status on the print server.

A user reports that after moving their desktop computer to a new desk, the network connection no longer works. The technician notices that the Ethernet cable is plugged into the computer and the wall jack, but the link lights on the computer's NIC and the wall jack are off. The cable is a flat-style Cat5e cable that came with the computer. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

The cable is damaged from bending

Flat cables have thinner conductors and less protection. Bending or pinching during the move can break the internal wires, causing loss of link lights.

B

The cable is not Cat6

C

The wall jack is not terminated properly

D

The NIC is disabled in the OS

Why: Flat Ethernet cables, especially Cat5e types, are more susceptible to damage from bending, twisting, or being pinched. The move likely caused damage to the internal wires, breaking the physical connection. Link lights off indicate a Layer 1 issue (no electrical connectivity). Cat5e is sufficient for typical speeds and is not the issue. The wall jack termination was likely working before the move and is less likely to fail simultaneously. A disabled NIC in the OS would still show link lights if the cable is good.

A network laser printer displays 'Replace imaging drum' on its control panel. The technician installs a new imaging drum, but the next day the message reappears and users report faded prints. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

The printer firmware is out of date

B

The drum was not reset after installation

Most laser printers require accessing a menu or using software to reset the drum life counter after installing a new drum.

C

The toner cartridge is low

D

The main logic board is failing

Why: Many laser printers track imaging drum life and require a manual reset of the drum counter after replacement. If the counter is not reset, the printer still believes the drum is old and may produce print quality issues. A firmware issue is less likely, and low toner would produce a different error.

A user reports that their desktop computer can connect to the local network and access shared folders, but cannot browse the internet. Other computers on the same network work fine. The technician checks the IP configuration and sees the computer has a valid IP address of 192.168.1.100 with a default gateway of 192.168.1.1. The computer can successfully ping 192.168.1.1 and 8.8.8.8, but cannot ping 'google.com'. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

A

Check the proxy settings in the web browser.

B

Verify that the DNS server address is configured correctly on the workstation.

Correct. Since the user can ping the DNS server IP but not resolve hostnames, the DNS client configuration or the DNS server itself is the problem. Checking the DNS settings is the appropriate first step.

C

Replace the network cable connecting the computer to the wall jack.

D

Disable the Windows Firewall on the computer.

Why: A user can ping an external IP address but not a domain name, indicating that DNS resolution is failing. The most common cause is an incorrect DNS server configuration on the local computer or a DNS server issue. Since other computers work, the problem is likely local to this workstation. The technician should first check the DNS server settings in the network adapter properties to ensure they point to a valid DNS server (e.g., the router's IP or a public DNS like 8.8.8.8).

A user reports that their desktop computer intermittently loses network connectivity. The computer uses a USB Wi-Fi adapter. The technician notices that the adapter feels warm during use and the connection drops most often when the computer has been running for a while. Other devices on the same wireless network work fine. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A

Wireless interference from nearby devices

B

A faulty USB cable connected to the adapter

C

The USB port not providing enough power

Insufficient power from the USB port can cause the adapter to overheat and reset, leading to intermittent connectivity. This is common when a high-power USB device is connected to a low-power port or a port with degraded voltage.

D

A driver conflict with the Wi-Fi adapter

Why: The USB Wi-Fi adapter becoming warm and dropping connectivity after extended use strongly suggests that the USB port is not supplying sufficient power. When a USB device draws more power than the port can provide, it can become unstable, overheat, and disconnect. The technician should try connecting the adapter to a different USB port, preferably one on the back of the computer directly attached to the motherboard, or use a powered USB hub.

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Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the 220-1101 exam?

The 220-1101 exam has up to 90 questions and must be completed in 90 minutes. The passing score is 675/1000.

What types of questions appear on the 220-1101 exam?

The 220-1101 exam uses multiple-choice, multiple-select, drag-and-drop, and exhibit-based questions. Exhibit questions show CLI output, network diagrams, or routing tables and ask you to interpret them — exactly the format Courseiva uses.

How are 220-1101 questions organised by domain?

The exam covers 5 domains: Mobile Devices, Networking, Hardware, Virtualization and Cloud Computing, Hardware and Network Troubleshooting. Questions are weighted by domain — higher-weight domains appear more on your actual exam.

Are these the actual 220-1101 exam questions?

No. These are original exam-style practice questions written against the official CompTIA 220-1101 exam objectives. They are not copied from the real exam. Courseiva focuses on genuine understanding, not memorisation of braindumps.

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