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HomeCertifications220-1101Exam Questions

CompTIA · Free Practice Questions · Last reviewed May 2026

220-1101 Exam Questions and Answers

30real exam-style questions organised by domain, each with the correct answer highlighted and a plain-English explanation of why it's right — and why the others are wrong.

90 exam questions
90 min time limit
Pass: 675/1000 / 1000
5 exam domains
OverviewDomain BlueprintStudy GuideAll QuestionsSample by Domain
1. Mobile Devices2. Networking3. Hardware4. Virtualization and Cloud Computing5. Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
1

Domain 1: Mobile Devices

All Mobile Devices questions
Q1
easyFull explanation →

A user reports that the touchscreen on their smartphone is unresponsive in the bottom-left corner but works everywhere else. Which component is most likely failing?

A

Dead pixels

B

Digitizer failure

The digitizer is the touch-sensitive layer that registers touches. A localized unresponsive area indicates a partial digitizer failure, which is common in damaged screens.

C

LCD backlight issue

D

Pending OS update

Why: The touchscreen's digitizer is the layer responsible for detecting touch input. When a specific region of the screen becomes unresponsive while the display itself remains functional, it indicates a localized failure of the digitizer's grid or controller, not the LCD panel.
Q2
easyFull explanation →

A user reports that their smartphone battery drains significantly faster after a recent OS update. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to address this issue?

A

Replace the battery with a new one

B

Perform a factory reset and restore from backup

C

Check the battery usage statistics in the settings menu

This is the correct first step because it allows the technician to identify if a specific app or service is consuming excessive battery after the update.

D

Reinstall the operating system using the latest firmware

Why: Option C is correct because the first step in troubleshooting battery drain after an OS update is to check the battery usage statistics in the settings menu. This allows the technician to identify which apps or services are consuming excessive power, often due to background processes or misconfigured settings introduced by the update. Replacing hardware or performing a full OS reinstall without first diagnosing the cause is premature and may not resolve the issue.
Q3
mediumFull explanation →

A user's smartphone running Android is unable to connect to any Wi-Fi network. The Wi-Fi toggle is grayed out and cannot be turned on. The technician has tried a soft reset and checked that Airplane Mode is off. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

Faulty Wi-Fi antenna or module

Physical damage or failure of the internal Wi-Fi antenna or the Wi-Fi chip can cause the radio to be completely unavailable, resulting in a grayed-out toggle.

B

Corrupted network configuration

C

Incorrect date and time

D

Disabled Wi-Fi adapter in BIOS

Why: When the Wi-Fi toggle is grayed out and cannot be enabled, even after a soft reset and confirming Airplane Mode is off, it typically indicates a hardware-level failure. The most common cause is a faulty Wi-Fi antenna or module, as the operating system detects the hardware is not responding and disables the toggle to prevent user attempts. Software issues like corrupted settings or incorrect date/time would not prevent the toggle from being physically movable.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

A user's iPhone will not charge even though the screen is cracked but still displays properly and responds to touch. The technician has cleaned the Lightning port and verified the charging cable and power adapter work with another device. Which component most likely needs replacement?

A

Replace the LCD assembly

B

Replace the digitizer

C

Replace the charging port flex cable

The charging port flex cable connects the Lightning port to the logic board; it is a common failure point separate from the screen.

D

Replace the battery

Why: The iPhone charges through the Lightning port, which is connected to the logic board via the charging port flex cable. Since the screen is cracked but still displays and responds to touch, the LCD and digitizer are functional. The technician has already ruled out the cable and power adapter, so the most likely failure is the charging port flex cable, which can be damaged by debris, corrosion, or physical stress from the cracked screen.
Q5
easyFull explanation →

A user reports that their laptop's touchpad is not working. The technician checks Device Manager and sees the touchpad is not listed. The function key (Fn + F7) that enables/disables the touchpad does not seem to respond. The technician has rebooted the laptop. Which of the following should the technician try NEXT?

A

Update the touchpad driver via Windows Update

B

Check BIOS settings for touchpad enable/disable

The BIOS/UEFI often has a setting to enable or disable the touchpad. If it is disabled, the touchpad will not appear in the OS or respond to function keys. Checking BIOS is the appropriate next step.

C

Replace the touchpad hardware

D

Run the System File Checker (sfc /scannow)

Why: The touchpad not appearing in Device Manager and the Fn key not responding suggests the device is disabled at a lower level than the OS, such as in the BIOS/UEFI firmware. Checking BIOS settings is the correct next step because many laptops have a hardware-level enable/disable toggle for the touchpad that overrides OS and driver settings. This is a standard troubleshooting step before attempting driver updates or hardware replacement.
Q6
mediumFull explanation →

A user's Android smartphone screen is flickering intermittently and occasionally goes black for a few seconds before returning. The phone has not been dropped or exposed to moisture. The technician has performed a factory reset, but the issue persists. Which component is the MOST likely cause of the problem?

A

Digitizer

B

Display assembly

Correct. The display assembly includes the LCD/OLED panel and the backlight. A hardware fault in this component is the most likely cause of screen flickering and blackouts, especially since a factory reset did not fix it.

C

Battery

D

Motherboard

Why: The display assembly includes both the LCD panel and the digitizer. Since the issue persists after a factory reset, it is hardware-related. Intermittent flickering and blackouts without physical damage or moisture point to a failing LCD panel or loose internal connection within the display assembly, not the digitizer (which handles touch input only).

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2

Domain 2: Networking

All Networking questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A technician is adding a wireless access point (AP) in an outbuilding connected via Ethernet to the main office network (192.168.1.0/24). After configuring the AP with a static IP of 192.168.1.250, clients can connect to Wi-Fi but cannot access the internet. The main office devices have no issues. What is the most likely cause?

A

The SSID on the new AP differs from the main network's SSID

B

The new AP has its DHCP server enabled

If the AP's DHCP server is active, it will assign IP addresses that may not have the correct default gateway or DNS settings, or it may conflict with the main DHCP server, preventing proper routing to the internet.

C

The Ethernet cable connecting the AP is a crossover cable

D

The switch feeding the AP is not configured for VLAN 1

Why: The most likely cause is that the new AP has its DHCP server enabled. When the AP assigns IP addresses to clients via its own DHCP, those clients receive an IP address from a different subnet or scope than the main office network (192.168.1.0/24). This prevents them from reaching the default gateway (e.g., 192.168.1.1) and thus the internet, while the AP itself remains reachable on its static IP. Disabling the AP's DHCP server and allowing clients to obtain addresses from the main network's DHCP server resolves the issue.
Q2
mediumFull explanation →

A small office has a DHCP server that assigns IP addresses in the range 192.168.1.100 to 192.168.1.200. A file server needs a static IP address of 192.168.1.10. Which method should the technician use to ensure the server always receives that IP address without manually configuring the network adapter on the server?

A

Create a DHCP reservation on the router for the server's MAC address

This is the best practice because it combines the convenience of DHCP with the certainty of a fixed IP, and it is managed centrally on the router.

B

Configure the server with a static IP address of 192.168.1.10 in the operating system settings

C

Change the DHCP range to 192.168.1.11-200 so that .10 is excluded

D

Set up a port forwarding rule for the server

Why: A DHCP reservation binds a specific IP address to a client's MAC address on the DHCP server (often integrated into the router). This ensures the file server always receives 192.168.1.10 from the DHCP server without requiring manual configuration on the server itself, which is the requirement in the question. The reservation works because the DHCP server checks the MAC address in the DHCP request and always offers the reserved IP.
Q3
mediumFull explanation →

A company has a router with four Ethernet ports. They need to connect 12 wired devices in the same LAN segment. All devices must receive IP addresses from the same DHCP server running on the router. Which device should the technician add?

A

Switch

A switch adds multiple ports and keeps all devices on the same LAN segment, allowing them to obtain IP addresses from the router's DHCP server.

B

Hub

C

Access point

D

Modem

Why: A switch is the correct device because it operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, forwarding Ethernet frames based on MAC addresses, and can connect multiple devices while keeping them in the same broadcast domain. With four router ports already in use, adding a switch allows the 12 wired devices to share a single LAN segment and receive IP addresses from the router's DHCP server, as the switch transparently forwards DHCP broadcast traffic.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

A technician installs a new VoIP phone that receives power via PoE from a managed switch. The phone powers on but cannot register with the call server. A PC connected to the phone's passthrough port obtains an IP address and accesses the internet normally. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the phone's failure?

A

The switch port is configured with a voice VLAN that the phone is not using

B

The switch port has a VLAN mismatch for the voice VLAN

A VLAN mismatch between the switch port (data VLAN only) and the phone (expecting voice VLAN) prevents the phone from communicating on the correct network.

C

The Ethernet cable between the switch and the phone is faulty

D

The phone's MAC address is filtered on the network

Why: The phone powers on via PoE and the PC behind it works, proving Layer 1 and basic Layer 2 connectivity are fine. The phone cannot register with the call server, which typically requires it to be on the correct voice VLAN. A VLAN mismatch for the voice VLAN means the switch port is configured to tag voice traffic with a different VLAN ID than the phone expects, preventing the phone from communicating with the call server.
Q5
mediumFull explanation →

A network technician is troubleshooting a connectivity issue in a small office. A user's computer obtains an IP address starting with 169.254.x.x. The network uses DHCP from a router with IP 192.168.1.1. The technician checks the cable and sees the link light is on. The computer was working yesterday. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

The DHCP server's IP address changed

B

The network cable is a crossover cable

C

The DHCP server has exhausted its IP pool

When the DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses, new requests (or renewal attempts) fail, leading to APIPA. This is a common issue when many devices connect without proper IP address management.

D

The computer's network adapter is faulty

Why: The 169.254.x.x address is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address, assigned by Windows when DHCP fails. Since the computer worked yesterday and the link light is on, the most likely cause is that the DHCP server's IP pool is exhausted, preventing new leases. This is a common scenario in small offices with limited IP ranges.
Q6
mediumFull explanation →

A technician is replacing a 10/100 Mbps network switch with a new Gigabit switch. After connecting all devices, the technician notices that the link LEDs on several ports are showing amber instead of green. The switch documentation states that green indicates a 1000 Mbps link, and amber indicates a 10/100 Mbps link. All connected devices support Gigabit Ethernet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A

The devices are configured for half-duplex, causing auto-negotiation to fail.

B

The power supply of the switch is insufficient for all ports.

C

The Ethernet cables between the switch and devices are faulty or of poor quality.

Correct. A faulty or low-quality cable is the most common reason for a Gigabit connection to fall back to 100 Mbps. The cable may have damage or exceed length specifications, forcing auto-negotiation to a lower speed.

D

The switch is not properly configured for Gigabit mode.

Why: The amber link LED indicates that the switch is operating at 10/100 Mbps rather than the expected 1000 Mbps. Since all connected devices support Gigabit Ethernet, the most likely cause is that the Ethernet cables are faulty or of poor quality, as Gigabit Ethernet requires all four twisted pairs (8 wires) to be fully functional, whereas 10/100 Mbps only uses two pairs. A marginal or damaged cable can cause auto-negotiation to fall back to a lower speed.

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3

Domain 3: Hardware

All Hardware questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A technician is assembling a workstation for video editing. The motherboard has two DIMM slots and supports dual-channel DDR4-3200 memory. The user requests 32 GB of RAM. Which memory configuration will provide the best performance?

A

One 32 GB DDR4-3200 module

B

Two 16 GB DDR4-2666 modules

C

Two 16 GB DDR4-3200 modules

Two identical high-speed modules enable dual-channel mode at the rated 3200 MT/s, providing the best performance for video editing workloads.

D

One 16 GB DDR4-3200 and one 16 GB DDR4-2666 module

Why: Option C is correct because it uses two identical 16 GB DDR4-3200 modules in the motherboard's two DIMM slots, enabling dual-channel memory operation. Dual-channel mode doubles the memory bandwidth compared to single-channel, which is critical for video editing workloads that involve large data transfers. The DDR4-3200 speed matches the motherboard's supported speed, ensuring optimal performance without any speed mismatches.
Q2
mediumFull explanation →

A technician is building a desktop computer and applies thermal paste to the CPU before installing the heatsink. The technician uses significantly more paste than recommended. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of this action?

A

The CPU will overheat because excess paste reduces heat transfer efficiency

Too much paste creates a thick layer that impedes heat transfer from the CPU to the heatsink, leading to higher temperatures and potential thermal throttling or damage.

B

The thermal paste will cause a short circuit on the motherboard

C

The CPU will run cooler due to better coverage

D

There will be no noticeable effect on system performance

Why: Excess thermal paste acts as an insulator rather than a conductor, creating a thicker layer that impedes heat transfer from the CPU die to the heatsink base. This reduces thermal conductivity efficiency, causing the CPU to run hotter and potentially throttle or fail under load.
Q3
easyFull explanation →

A technician is upgrading a desktop computer's storage. The motherboard has one M.2 slot that supports both SATA and NVMe protocols. The user wants the fastest possible boot drive. Which type of M.2 drive should the technician select?

A

SATA M.2

B

NVMe M.2

NVMe M.2 drives connect via PCIe, supporting speeds of several GB/s. They are the fastest M.2 option and ideal for a boot drive demanding high performance.

C

mSATA

D

2.5" SSD

Why: The NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) protocol is designed to leverage the high-speed PCIe bus, offering significantly lower latency and higher throughput compared to SATA-based SSDs. Since the motherboard's M.2 slot supports both SATA and NVMe, selecting an NVMe M.2 drive provides the fastest possible boot drive performance.
Q4
easyFull explanation →

A technician needs to install a PCIe x4 network adapter into a desktop computer. The motherboard has the following available slots: one PCIe x16 slot (occupied by a graphics card), two PCIe x1 slots, and one PCIe x8 slot. Which slot can the technician use to install the x4 card?

A

Any of the PCIe x1 slots

B

The PCIe x8 slot

The PCIe x8 slot is physically larger than the x4 card's connector and will accept it, running the card at x4 speed.

C

The PCIe x16 slot after removing the graphics card

D

A PCI slot

Why: The PCIe x8 slot is the correct choice because PCIe is designed to be backward and forward compatible in terms of lane width. A PCIe x4 card can physically and electrically operate in a PCIe x8 slot, as the slot provides at least the required number of lanes and the card will negotiate down to x4 mode. The other slots either lack the physical size (x1) or are occupied by a critical component (x16).
Q5
mediumFull explanation →

A technician is building a high-performance gaming PC. The motherboard has four DDR4 DIMM slots, and the technician installs two 8 GB modules in slots A2 and B2 (dual-channel configuration). The PC boots and works, but the BIOS shows only 8 GB of RAM. The technician reseats the modules and tries different slots, but the issue persists. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

The RAM modules are not compatible with the motherboard

B

The CPU cooler is installed too tightly, causing memory controller issues

C

Windows 10 has a memory limit for the edition installed

D

One of the RAM modules is faulty

A faulty RAM module will not be detected by the system. Since the technician has tried reseating and different slots, the most logical conclusion is that one of the modules is defective.

Why: The most likely cause is that one of the RAM modules is faulty. When two modules are installed in a dual-channel configuration (slots A2 and B2) and the system detects only 8 GB instead of 16 GB, it typically indicates that one module is not being recognized or is failing. Reseating and swapping slots did not resolve the issue, which further points to a defective module rather than a configuration or compatibility problem.
Q6
easyFull explanation →

A technician is building a desktop computer and has installed a SATA solid-state drive (SSD). After connecting the SATA data cable and power cable, the computer boots to the BIOS, but the SSD is not listed in the SATA devices. The technician has verified that the SATA cable is securely connected to both the drive and the motherboard and that the power supply is functioning. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?

A

Format the SSD using a different computer.

B

Check the BIOS settings to ensure the SATA port is enabled.

Correct. SATA ports can be disabled in the BIOS. If the port is disabled, the drive will not be detected. Checking the BIOS configuration is the appropriate next step after verifying physical connections.

C

Update the motherboard chipset drivers.

D

Replace the CMOS battery.

Why: The most likely reason the SSD is not detected is that the SATA port is disabled in the BIOS. Even with secure physical connections, a disabled port will not enumerate the drive. Checking and enabling the SATA port in the BIOS is the logical next step before considering other hardware or software issues.

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4

Domain 4: Virtualization and Cloud Computing

All Virtualization and Cloud Computing questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A company wants to migrate its on-premises email server to the cloud. The IT director insists that the new solution require no management of the underlying operating system, application server, or patching. Which cloud service model should the organization choose?

A

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

B

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C

Software as a Service (SaaS)

SaaS delivers a complete, ready-to-use application. For email, Microsoft 365 or Google Workspace are examples. The provider handles all backend management, including OS patches, making it ideal for this requirement.

D

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

Why: Software as a Service (SaaS) provides a fully managed application delivered over the internet. The provider handles all underlying infrastructure, operating system, application server, and patching, meeting the IT director's requirement for zero management of those layers. In this scenario, the email service is consumed as a ready-to-use application, such as Microsoft 365 Exchange Online or Google Workspace.
Q2
mediumFull explanation →

A company wants to migrate a custom-developed web application to the cloud. The IT team needs full control over the operating system, middleware, and runtime environment but does not want to manage physical hardware or the underlying virtualization layer. Which cloud service model should the organization choose?

A

Software as a Service (SaaS)

B

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

IaaS delivers virtual machines and storage where the customer can install and configure the OS, middleware, and applications as needed, while the provider handles physical infrastructure.

D

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

Why: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, giving the customer full control over the operating system, middleware, and runtime environment while abstracting away the physical hardware and underlying virtualization layer. This matches the requirement for complete control without managing the physical infrastructure.
Q3
hardFull explanation →

A company hosts a critical database server on-premises. They want to migrate to a cloud solution that allows them to retain full administrative control over the operating system, database software, and security patches, but they do not want to manage the physical server hardware, rack space, or network cabling. Which cloud service model should they choose?

A

IaaS

With IaaS, the cloud provider handles physical hardware, and the customer manages the OS, middleware, and applications. This fits the requirement for full administrative control without hardware management.

B

PaaS

C

SaaS

D

DaaS

Why: IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is the correct choice because it provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, including virtual machines, storage, and networking. The customer retains full administrative control over the operating system, database software, and security patches, while the cloud provider manages the physical server hardware, rack space, and network cabling. This matches the requirement of full OS and application control without physical infrastructure management.
Q4
hardFull explanation →

A company runs its e-commerce platform on a private cloud but expects a large traffic spike during a promotional event. They want to automatically add additional virtual servers from a public cloud provider during the peak and release them afterward. Which cloud computing characteristic best describes this capability?

A

High availability

B

Elasticity

Elasticity allows the infrastructure to automatically expand and contract computing resources in response to workload changes.

C

Fault tolerance

D

Resource pooling

Why: Elasticity is the cloud computing characteristic that allows resources to be automatically scaled up or down based on demand. In this scenario, the company uses a hybrid cloud model where additional virtual servers from a public cloud provider are provisioned during a traffic spike and released afterward, which is the definition of elasticity. This contrasts with scalability, which is the ability to handle growth over time, as elasticity specifically addresses dynamic, automated scaling to match fluctuating workloads.
Q5
hardFull explanation →

A company uses a private cloud with 10 virtual servers running on a single hypervisor host. The VMs are configured with dynamic memory allocation. Recently, performance has degraded, and the hypervisor shows 90% memory utilization. The IT team wants to add two more VMs without purchasing additional hardware. Which of the following is the most likely limiting factor?

A

The hypervisor's CPU core count

B

The storage I/O bandwidth

C

The total physical RAM installed in the host

With 90% memory utilization, the hypervisor has very little free RAM. Adding more VMs will require memory overcommit, which relies on swapping to disk, causing severe slowdowns. Physical RAM is the likely limiting factor.

D

The network interface card speed

Why: The hypervisor shows 90% memory utilization, and dynamic memory allocation allows VMs to share physical RAM. Adding two more VMs without increasing physical memory will likely exhaust the host's RAM, causing excessive swapping or out-of-memory conditions. This makes total physical RAM the most likely limiting factor.
Q6
hardFull explanation →

A company runs multiple virtual machines (VMs) on a single hypervisor host for development and testing. Users report that the VMs are performing poorly. The administrator checks the host and sees that CPU utilization is at 40% and memory utilization is at 50%, but disk I/O latency is extremely high. The host has a single SATA SSD that stores all VM disk files. Which of the following actions would MOST likely improve performance?

A

Add more RAM to the hypervisor host.

B

Add additional CPU cores to the hypervisor host.

C

Use a separate SSD for each VM to distribute I/O load.

Correct. By isolating each VM's disk files on separate SSDs, the I/O workload is distributed, reducing contention and latency. This addresses the root cause of the disk bottleneck.

D

Enable memory overcommitment on the hypervisor.

Why: The host has a single SATA SSD storing all VM disk files, and disk I/O latency is extremely high despite low CPU and memory utilization. This indicates a storage bottleneck where all VMs contend for the same disk. Using a separate SSD for each VM distributes the I/O load across multiple physical drives, reducing contention and improving performance.

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5

Domain 5: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

All Hardware and Network Troubleshooting questions
Q1
hardFull explanation →

After a power outage, a desktop computer will not power on. The PSU fan does not spin, and no LEDs are lit. The technician tests the power supply with a PSU tester; all voltages are within spec. A multimeter reading at the motherboard's power button header shows 3.3V when the button is pressed. The power supply is also confirmed to work when tested in another system. What is the most likely cause?

A

The motherboard has failed

Given that the PSU is good and the power button sends the correct signal, the motherboard is the remaining component that controls the power-on sequence. A damaged motherboard (e.g., from a power surge) will not start the system.

B

The power supply is still faulty despite the tester showing good voltages

C

The power button is faulty

D

The BIOS has become corrupted

Why: The motherboard has failed because the PSU passes all voltage tests and works in another system, yet the desktop shows no signs of power (no fan spin, no LEDs) when connected to this motherboard. The 3.3V reading at the power button header indicates the motherboard is receiving standby power and the button is functioning, but the motherboard is not completing the power-on sequence (pulling PS_ON# low) to start the PSU. This points to a failed motherboard, likely a short or damaged power regulation circuit.
Q2
hardFull explanation →

A network printer is set to a static IP address. Users report that print jobs spool on their workstations but never print. The technician confirms the printer is powered on, the network cable is connected, and the printer's self-test page prints successfully. The technician can ping the printer's IP address from a workstation. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A

The printer's print queue is paused or the printer is in an 'Offline' state on the print server

This is the likely cause because the printer is online and responsive, but the print server may have the queue paused or set to offline, preventing jobs from reaching the printer.

B

The printer driver on the workstations is incorrect

C

The printer's static IP address conflicts with another device on the network

D

The network cable is faulty

Why: The printer is reachable (ping succeeds) and its self-test page prints, confirming basic network connectivity and hardware functionality. The fact that print jobs spool locally but never print indicates the print server is not forwarding jobs to the printer, which is classic behavior when the printer queue is paused or the printer is marked offline on the print server. This prevents the spooler from sending data to the printer even though the network path is intact.
Q3
mediumFull explanation →

A user reports that after moving their desktop computer to a new desk, the network connection no longer works. The technician notices that the Ethernet cable is plugged into the computer and the wall jack, but the link lights on the computer's NIC and the wall jack are off. The cable is a flat-style Cat5e cable that came with the computer. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

The cable is damaged from bending

Flat cables have thinner conductors and less protection. Bending or pinching during the move can break the internal wires, causing loss of link lights.

B

The cable is not Cat6

C

The wall jack is not terminated properly

D

The NIC is disabled in the OS

Why: Flat-style Ethernet cables are more susceptible to damage from bending or kinking than round cables because their conductors are arranged in a parallel plane, which can cause conductor fractures or impedance mismatches when flexed. Since the cable was moved and the link lights are off on both the NIC and the wall jack, the most likely cause is physical damage to the cable from bending during the move, breaking the electrical continuity.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

A network laser printer displays 'Replace imaging drum' on its control panel. The technician installs a new imaging drum, but the next day the message reappears and users report faded prints. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

The printer firmware is out of date

B

The drum was not reset after installation

Most laser printers require accessing a menu or using software to reset the drum life counter after installing a new drum.

C

The toner cartridge is low

D

The main logic board is failing

Why: The 'Replace imaging drum' message persists and prints are faded because the printer's maintenance counter for the drum unit was not reset after installing the new drum. Most laser printers track drum life via a page count or a rotation counter; replacing the physical drum without resetting this counter leaves the printer believing the old, worn drum is still installed, causing it to continue displaying the warning and potentially reducing toner transfer efficiency, leading to faded output.
Q5
mediumFull explanation →

A user reports that their desktop computer can connect to the local network and access shared folders, but cannot browse the internet. Other computers on the same network work fine. The technician checks the IP configuration and sees the computer has a valid IP address of 192.168.1.100 with a default gateway of 192.168.1.1. The computer can successfully ping 192.168.1.1 and 8.8.8.8, but cannot ping 'google.com'. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

A

Check the proxy settings in the web browser.

B

Verify that the DNS server address is configured correctly on the workstation.

Correct. Since the user can ping the DNS server IP but not resolve hostnames, the DNS client configuration or the DNS server itself is the problem. Checking the DNS settings is the appropriate first step.

C

Replace the network cable connecting the computer to the wall jack.

D

Disable the Windows Firewall on the computer.

Why: The computer can ping 8.8.8.8 (a public IP address) but cannot ping 'google.com' (a domain name). This indicates that IP connectivity to the internet is working, but name resolution is failing. The most likely cause is a misconfigured or unreachable DNS server. The technician should first verify the DNS server address in the workstation's IP configuration, as this is the quickest and most direct step to resolve the symptom.
Q6
mediumFull explanation →

A user reports that their desktop computer intermittently loses network connectivity. The computer uses a USB Wi-Fi adapter. The technician notices that the adapter feels warm during use and the connection drops most often when the computer has been running for a while. Other devices on the same wireless network work fine. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A

Wireless interference from nearby devices

B

A faulty USB cable connected to the adapter

C

The USB port not providing enough power

Insufficient power from the USB port can cause the adapter to overheat and reset, leading to intermittent connectivity. This is common when a high-power USB device is connected to a low-power port or a port with degraded voltage.

D

A driver conflict with the Wi-Fi adapter

Why: The USB Wi-Fi adapter feels warm and drops connectivity after prolonged use, which indicates thermal stress from insufficient power delivery. USB ports have a maximum current output (typically 500mA for USB 2.0 or 900mA for USB 3.0), and if the adapter draws more power than the port can supply, the voltage drops, causing the adapter to overheat and disconnect. Other devices on the same network work fine, ruling out wireless interference or network-side issues, and the intermittent nature tied to runtime points directly to power starvation rather than a driver or cable fault.

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Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the 220-1101 exam?

The 220-1101 exam has 90 questions and must be completed in 90 minutes. The passing score is 675/1000.

What types of questions appear on the 220-1101 exam?

Multiple-choice and performance-based questions on hardware, operating systems, troubleshooting, networking, and security fundamentals. Some questions are performance-based (PBQs), asking you to complete tasks in a simulated environment.

How are 220-1101 questions organised by domain?

The exam covers 5 domains: Mobile Devices, Networking, Hardware, Virtualization and Cloud Computing, Hardware and Network Troubleshooting. Questions are weighted by domain — higher-weight domains appear more on your actual exam.

Are these the actual 220-1101 exam questions?

No. These are original exam-style practice questions written against the official CompTIA 220-1101 exam objectives. They are not copied from the real exam. Courseiva focuses on genuine understanding, not memorisation of braindumps.

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