CCNP Virtual Machines and Hypervisors Practice Test 2 — 15 Questions

Question 1

An architect is designing a virtualized environment for network functions that require direct access to physical NICs for performance. The hypervisor must support PCI passthrough. Which hypervisor type is best suited for this requirement?

Accepted Answer

Type 1 hypervisor (e.g., VMware ESXi or KVM).. A Type 1 hypervisor (bare-metal) runs directly on the hardware and has direct access to physical resources, including PCIe devices. It supports PCI passthrough (e.g., Intel VT-d or AMD IOMMU), which allows a virtual machine to directly access a physical NIC without hypervisor intervention, maximizing performance for network functions. VMware ESXi and KVM are common Type 1 hypervisors that implement this capability.

Answer

Type 2 hypervisor (e.g., VirtualBox or VMware Workstation).

Answer

Container runtime (e.g., Docker).

Answer

Bare-metal server without virtualization.

Question 2

A network team is deploying a virtualized WAN optimization appliance. The appliance must be able to process traffic at line rate on a 10 Gbps link. The hypervisor host has multiple physical NICs. Which design choice will best ensure the VM can achieve the required throughput?

Accepted Answer

Assign the VM a virtual function (VF) using SR-IOV on the physical NIC.. SR-IOV (Single Root I/O Virtualization) allows a physical NIC to present multiple virtual functions (VFs) directly to a VM, bypassing the hypervisor's virtual switch. This reduces CPU overhead and latency, enabling the VM to achieve near line-rate throughput on a 10 Gbps link by allowing direct hardware access for data plane traffic.

Answer

Use a standard virtual switch with a single vCPU for the VM.

Answer

Enable jumbo frames on the virtual switch only.

Answer

Configure the VM with multiple vNICs and use NIC teaming.

Question 3

An architect is planning a virtualized infrastructure for a branch office that will host a Cisco ISRv router and a local DHCP server. The architect wants to minimize management overhead and ensure the VMs can be easily backed up. Which hypervisor deployment model is most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Deploy a Type 1 hypervisor on the branch server and manage VMs via a centralized vCenter or similar tool.. A Type 1 hypervisor (bare-metal) runs directly on the server hardware, providing near-native performance for the Cisco ISRv router and DHCP server. Centralized management via vCenter or similar tools reduces administrative overhead and enables efficient VM backup and recovery, meeting the architect's requirements for minimal management overhead and easy backup.

Answer

Use a Type 2 hypervisor on a desktop PC at the branch.

Answer

Run the ISRv and DHCP server as containers on the same host.

Answer

Install the ISRv directly on physical hardware without virtualization.

Question 4

Examine the following partial configuration on a Cisco IOS-XE device:

interface GigabitEthernet0/1
 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
 ip ospf hello-interval 5
 ip ospf dead-interval 20
!

What is the effect of this configuration?

Accepted Answer

The router will send OSPF hello packets every 5 seconds and declare a neighbor dead after 20 seconds of no hello.. Option A is correct because the `ip ospf hello-interval 5` command sets the OSPF hello interval to 5 seconds, and the `ip ospf dead-interval 20` command sets the dead interval to 20 seconds. These per-interface commands override the default hello interval of 10 seconds and dead interval of 40 seconds for broadcast networks, allowing the router to send hello packets every 5 seconds and declare a neighbor dead after 20 seconds of no hello reception.

Answer

The router will send OSPF hello packets every 10 seconds and declare a neighbor dead after 40 seconds, overriding the configuration.

Answer

The configuration is invalid because the dead interval must be exactly four times the hello interval.

Answer

The router will not form OSPF adjacencies because the hello and dead intervals are not default.

Question 5

Consider the following configuration snippet:

router bgp 65000
 bgp router-id 192.168.1.1
 neighbor 10.0.0.2 remote-as 65001
 neighbor 10.0.0.2 timers 10 30
!

What is the effect of the 'timers 10 30' command under the BGP neighbor?

Accepted Answer

It sets the keepalive interval to 10 seconds and the hold time to 30 seconds for neighbor 10.0.0.2 only.. Option B is correct because the 'timers 10 30' command under the BGP neighbor configuration mode sets the keepalive interval to 10 seconds and the hold time to 30 seconds specifically for that neighbor (10.0.0.2). This per-neighbor timer configuration overrides any global BGP timers set under the router bgp process, allowing granular control over individual BGP sessions.

Answer

It sets the keepalive interval to 10 seconds and the hold time to 30 seconds for all BGP neighbors.

Answer

It sets the BGP keepalive interval to 30 seconds and the hold time to 10 seconds for neighbor 10.0.0.2.

Answer

It configures the BGP session to use a keepalive of 10 seconds and a hold time of 30 seconds, but only if the neighbor supports it.

Question 6

Given the following EIGRP configuration:

router eigrp 100
 network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
 metric weights 0 1 1 1 0 0
!

What is the effect of the 'metric weights' command?

Accepted Answer

It sets the EIGRP metric to use bandwidth, load, and delay, ignoring reliability and MTU.. The 'metric weights' command in EIGRP allows you to modify the K values used in the composite metric calculation. The syntax is 'metric weights tos k1 k2 k3 k4 k5'. Here, the values are 0 1 1 1 0 0, meaning k1 (bandwidth) = 1, k2 (load) = 1, k3 (delay) = 1, k4 (reliability) = 0, k5 (MTU) = 0. This results in the metric using bandwidth, load, and delay, while ignoring reliability and MTU. Option A correctly describes this effect.

Answer

It disables EIGRP metric calculation and uses a fixed metric of 1.

Answer

It sets the EIGRP metric to use only bandwidth and delay, ignoring load, reliability, and MTU.

Answer

It configures EIGRP to use the default K values (1,0,1,0,0).

Question 7

Review the following OSPF configuration:

router ospf 1
 network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
 network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 1
 default-information originate always metric 20 metric-type 1
!

What is the effect of the 'default-information originate always metric 20 metric-type 1' command?

Accepted Answer

It injects a default route into OSPF unconditionally, with metric 20 and type E1.. The 'default-information originate always' command injects a default route into the OSPF link-state database unconditionally, even if no default route exists in the routing table. The 'metric 20' sets the OSPF cost to 20, and 'metric-type 1' makes it an E1 (Type 1) external route, meaning the metric includes the internal cost to the ASBR plus the external cost.

Answer

It injects a default route into OSPF only if a default route exists in the routing table, with metric 20 and type E1.

Answer

It injects a default route into OSPF with metric 20 and type E2, but only if a default route exists.

Answer

It injects a default route into OSPF with metric 20 and type E1, but only for area 0.

Question 8

Examine the following configuration:

interface GigabitEthernet0/0
 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0
 ipv6 address 2001:db8:1::1/64
 ipv6 ospf 100 area 0
!

What is missing from this configuration to enable OSPFv3 on this interface?

Accepted Answer

The command 'ipv6 router ospf 100' must be added globally to create the OSPFv3 process.. Option B is correct because OSPFv3 requires an active OSPFv3 process on the router before it can be enabled on any interface. The 'ipv6 router ospf 100' global command creates the OSPFv3 process with process ID 100, which is necessary for the interface-level 'ipv6 ospf 100 area 0' command to function. Without this global process, the interface configuration is incomplete and OSPFv3 will not operate.

Answer

The configuration is complete; no additional commands are needed.

Answer

The interface needs the 'ipv6 ospf network point-to-point' command to work.

Answer

The 'ipv6 unicast-routing' command must be enabled globally.

Question 9

Consider the following BGP configuration:

router bgp 65000
 bgp router-id 10.0.0.1
 neighbor 10.0.0.2 remote-as 65001
 neighbor 10.0.0.2 route-map SET-MED out
!
route-map SET-MED permit 10
 set metric 50
!

What is the effect of this route-map on outbound updates to neighbor 10.0.0.2?

Accepted Answer

It sets the MED to 50 for all routes advertised to 10.0.0.2.. The route-map SET-MED is applied to outbound updates to neighbor 10.0.0.2 with a permit sequence 10 and a set metric 50 command, but no match statement. In BGP, a route-map with a permit clause and no match condition matches all routes by default. Therefore, the MED (Multi-Exit Discriminator) attribute is set to 50 for every route advertised to that neighbor.

Answer

It sets the MED to 50 for all routes advertised to 10.0.0.2, but only if they match a prefix-list.

Answer

It sets the local preference to 50 for routes received from 10.0.0.2.

Answer

It filters all routes to 10.0.0.2 because there is no match statement.

Question 10

What is the default OSPF hello interval on a broadcast multi-access network (e.g., Ethernet)?

Accepted Answer

10 seconds. On a broadcast multi-access network like Ethernet, OSPF defaults to a hello interval of 10 seconds. This is defined in RFC 2328 and is used to quickly detect neighbor failures while keeping control traffic overhead manageable. The corresponding dead interval is 40 seconds (4 times the hello interval).

Answer

30 seconds

Answer

5 seconds

Answer

40 seconds

Question 11

Which BGP attribute is preferred when it has the lowest value?

Accepted Answer

MED (Multi-Exit Discriminator). The Multi-Exit Discriminator (MED) is a BGP attribute used to influence inbound traffic from neighboring ASes. A lower MED value is preferred when multiple paths are received from the same neighboring AS, making it the correct answer for an attribute preferred with the lowest value.

Answer

Weight

Answer

Local Preference

Answer

AS Path Length

Question 12

What is the maximum hop count for EIGRP?

Accepted Answer

255. EIGRP uses a maximum hop count of 255, which is a hard limit encoded in the protocol's metric field. This allows EIGRP to scale to much larger networks than distance-vector protocols like RIP, which have a hop count limit of 15. The hop count is not used as a primary metric in EIGRP but serves as a loop-prevention mechanism, and routes with a hop count exceeding 255 are considered unreachable.

Answer

15

Answer

16

Answer

100

Question 13

Drag and drop the steps of a VM live migration process in vSphere into the correct order, from first to last.

Accepted Answer

Initiate vMotion from source host. In vSphere live migration (vMotion), the source host first copies memory pages to the destination while the VM continues running. It then marks pages as dirty and iteratively copies them. Once the remaining dirty pages are small enough, the VM is quiesced, final memory and state are copied, and the VM resumes on the destination host.

Question 14

Drag and drop the steps of deploying a virtual machine from a template in VMware vSphere into the correct order, from first to last.

Accepted Answer

Select template and specify VM name. Deploying from a template begins with selecting the template and specifying a name and location. Next, the compute resource (host or cluster) is chosen, followed by storage. Customization specifications (like hostname and IP) are applied, and finally the VM is powered on.

Question 15

Drag and drop the steps of creating a virtual machine in VMware ESXi using the vSphere Client into the correct order, from first to last.

Accepted Answer

Enter VM name and select compatibility. Creating a VM starts with naming it and selecting a compatibility level. Then the guest OS is chosen, followed by storage. Virtual hardware (CPU, memory, disk) is configured, and the VM is finalized and powered on.