The answer is to accept the risk and continue monitoring. This is the most appropriate response because R-0042 represents a low-likelihood, low-impact risk involving PII already protected by AES-256 encryption and strict access controls, meaning the residual risk falls well within the organization’s defined risk appetite. On the CRISC exam, this scenario tests your ability to distinguish when a risk is already so well-controlled that any further mitigation, transfer, or avoidance would introduce unnecessary cost or operational disruption—a classic example of risk acceptance in action. A common trap is assuming any PII risk must be mitigated or transferred, but the exam rewards recognizing that effective controls can make acceptance the leanest, most cost-efficient path. Memory tip: if the controls are already strong and the impact is low, “accept and monitor” is the logical song.
CRISC Risk Response and Mitigation Practice Question
This CRISC practice question tests your understanding of risk response and mitigation. Compare every option against the stated constraints before choosing — the best answer satisfies all requirements, not just the most obvious one. After answering, compare your reasoning against the explanation and wrong-answer breakdown below. Once you have made your selection, read the full explanation to reinforce the concept and understand why each distractor is designed to mislead on exam day.
Exhibit
Refer to the exhibit.
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[Risk Register Excerpt]
Risk ID: R-0042
Risk Description: Unauthorized access to customer PII due to weak database encryption
Inherent Risk Score: 16 (Likelihood: 4, Impact: 4)
Control: AES-256 encryption at rest (implemented)
Residual Risk Score: 8 (Likelihood: 2, Impact: 4)
Risk Appetite Threshold: 10
```
Based on the risk register exhibit, which of the following is the MOST appropriate risk response for R-0042?
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Accept the risk and continue monitoring
R-0042 is a low-likelihood, low-impact risk involving PII stored with AES-256 encryption and strict access controls. The residual risk is within the organization's risk appetite, making acceptance with continued monitoring the most appropriate response. Mitigation, transfer, or avoidance would introduce unnecessary cost or operational disruption for a risk already well-controlled.
Key principle: Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
✗
Mitigate the risk by implementing additional encryption controls
Why it's wrong here
Additional mitigation is not required because the risk is already within appetite.
✗
Transfer the risk to a third-party insurer
Why it's wrong here
Transfer is not necessary since the residual risk is within appetite.
✗
Avoid the risk by discontinuing storage of PII
Why it's wrong here
Avoidance is too drastic; the risk is acceptable.
✓
Accept the risk and continue monitoring
Why this is correct
Since residual risk is below the risk appetite threshold, acceptance is appropriate.
Related concept
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
Common exam traps
Common exam trap: answer the scenario, not the keyword
The trap here is that candidates often assume any risk involving PII must be mitigated or avoided, ignoring the risk register's explicit low-likelihood and low-impact ratings and the existing strong controls, which make acceptance the most cost-effective and appropriate response.
Detailed technical explanation
How to think about this question
Risk acceptance is a valid response when residual risk falls below the risk tolerance threshold defined in the organization's risk appetite statement. In practice, this is documented in the risk register with a formal acceptance rationale and a monitoring frequency (e.g., quarterly review of access logs and encryption key rotations). The decision hinges on quantitative analysis: if the annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is less than the cost of mitigation, acceptance is optimal.
KKey Concepts to Remember
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
Find the constraint that changes the correct option.
Eliminate answers that are true in general but not in this case.
TExam Day Tips
→Watch for words such as best, first, most likely and least administrative effort.
→Review why wrong options are wrong, not only why the correct option is correct.
Key takeaway
Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Real-world example
How this comes up in practice
A practitioner preparing for the CRISC exam encounters this exact type of scenario on the job. The correct answer here is not the most general option — it is the best answer for the specific constraint described. Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option. Real exam questions reward reading the full scenario before eliminating options, because the constraint defines which answer fits.
What to study next
Got this wrong? Here's your next step.
Identify which exam domain this question belongs to, review the core concept, then practise similar questions from the same domain.
Risk Response and Mitigation — This question tests Risk Response and Mitigation — Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer..
What is the correct answer to this question?
The correct answer is: Accept the risk and continue monitoring — R-0042 is a low-likelihood, low-impact risk involving PII stored with AES-256 encryption and strict access controls. The residual risk is within the organization's risk appetite, making acceptance with continued monitoring the most appropriate response. Mitigation, transfer, or avoidance would introduce unnecessary cost or operational disruption for a risk already well-controlled.
What should I do if I get this CRISC question wrong?
Identify which exam domain this question belongs to, review the core concept, then practise similar questions from the same domain.
What is the key concept behind this question?
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
About these practice questions
Courseiva creates original exam-style practice questions with explanations and wrong-answer analysis. It does not publish real exam questions, exam dumps, or protected exam content. Learn why practice questions differ from exam dumps →
These questions test the same concept from different angles. Work through them to make sure you can recognise it however the exam phrases it.
Variation 1. A company has identified a critical vulnerability in a legacy application that cannot be patched immediately. The application is used by a small number of users and supports a non-critical business process. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate risk response strategy?
easy
A.Avoidance
B.Transfer
✓ C.Acceptance
D.Mitigation
Why C: Option B is correct because acceptance is the appropriate response when the risk is low impact and cannot be mitigated or transferred easily. Option A is wrong because avoidance would mean decommissioning the application which is not necessary. Option C is wrong because transfer would require insurance or outsourcing which is not cost-effective. Option D is wrong because mitigation would involve patching which is not possible.
Last reviewed: Jun 11, 2026
Question Discussion
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This CRISC practice question is part of Courseiva's free ISACA certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the CRISC exam.
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