75 of 165 questions · Page 2/3 · Pkp Project Lifecycle topic · Answers revealed
A project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 1.2 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.9. Which of the following is true?
CPI=1.2 (>1) under budget; SPI=0.9 (<1) behind schedule.
Why this answer
CPI > 1 means under budget; SPI < 1 means behind schedule.
Which of the following is an example of a risk response strategy to avoid a risk?
Scope change to eliminate the risk is avoidance.
Why this answer
Avoidance involves changing the project plan to eliminate the risk or protect objectives.
During which project phase is the project charter created and the project manager formally assigned?
The project charter is developed during Initiating to authorize the project.
Why this answer
The project charter is created during the Initiating phase, along with assigning the project manager and obtaining authorization.
During which project phase is the project charter typically created and approved?
The charter is created in the Initiating phase to authorize the project.
Why this answer
The project charter is created during the Initiating phase to formally authorize the project.
According to Tuckman's model, during which stage do team members begin to resolve conflicts and establish norms?
Norming involves establishing consensus and ground rules.
Why this answer
Norming is when team members start to resolve differences and agree on norms.
A project manager is using a risk probability and impact matrix. A risk has a probability of 0.3 and an impact of $50,000. What is the expected monetary value (EMV) of this risk?
Correct calculation.
Why this answer
EMV = Probability × Impact = 0.3 × $50,000 = $15,000.
During project planning, a project manager is decomposing the project scope into smaller components. Which document is being created, and what is the lowest level of decomposition called?
The WBS is decomposed into work packages at the lowest level.
Why this answer
The WBS is created, and the lowest level is a work package.
During the planning phase, a project team is selecting risk response strategies for identified risks. Which THREE are valid risk response strategies?
Mitigation reduces probability or impact.
Why this answer
Risk response strategies include avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept. Exploit is a positive risk response strategy.
Which cost estimation technique uses historical data from similar projects to estimate the cost of the current project?
Analogous estimating uses historical data from similar projects.
Why this answer
Analogous estimation uses historical data from similar projects as a basis for estimation.
A project team is in the storming stage of Tuckman's model. Which of the following behaviors is most likely to be observed?
Storming is characterized by conflict and competition.
Why this answer
In the storming stage, team members may have conflicts and disagreements as they assert their opinions and struggle for positions. This is a natural part of team development.
Which of the following is a common response strategy for negative risks (threats) that involves reducing the probability or impact of the risk?
Mitigation reduces probability or impact.
Why this answer
Mitigation reduces the probability or impact of a threat.
A project manager is identifying stakeholders and analyzing their influence on the project. Using a power/interest grid, which group should the project manager 'manage closely'?
These stakeholders require the most attention and should be managed closely.
Why this answer
Stakeholders with high power and high interest should be managed closely as they have significant influence and are highly interested in the project's outcome.
Which contract type places the most cost risk on the seller?
Correct: Seller bears cost risk.
Why this answer
In a fixed-price contract, the seller bears the risk of cost overruns because the price is set regardless of actual costs.
During project execution, a team member proposes a change that will add a new feature to the product. The project manager documents the change request and analyzes its impact on scope, schedule, and cost. Who is typically responsible for approving or rejecting the change?
CCB is responsible for approving or rejecting changes.
Why this answer
The change control board (CCB) reviews and approves change requests.
During project execution, the project team is experiencing conflicts and questioning the project manager's authority. According to Tuckman's model, which stage is the team in?
Storming involves conflict and challenges to leadership.
Why this answer
Storming is characterized by conflict and questioning of authority.
A project manager has identified a stakeholder with high power and high interest. According to the power/interest grid, how should this stakeholder be managed?
High power and high interest require close management.
Why this answer
Stakeholders with high power and high interest should be managed closely as key players.
During the planning phase, a project manager is creating the WBS. Which of the following best describes the process of breaking down deliverables into smaller, more manageable components?
Decomposition is the correct term for breaking down deliverables into work packages.
Why this answer
Decomposition is the process of breaking down deliverables into smaller work packages within the WBS.
A project manager identifies a risk with a probability of 30% and an impact of $50,000. What is the expected monetary value (EMV) of this risk?
EMV = 0.30 × 50000 = 15000.
Why this answer
EMV = Probability × Impact = 0.30 × $50,000 = $15,000.
A project has the following activities and dependencies: A (5 days), B (3 days, after A), C (4 days, after A), D (2 days, after B), E (6 days, after C), F (1 day, after D and E). What is the total float of activity C?
Critical path activities have zero float.
Why this answer
The critical path is A-C-E-F: 5+4+6+1=16 days. The path A-B-D-F: 5+3+2+1=11 days. The float for C is the difference between early start and late start.
Since C is on the critical path, its total float is 0.
A project manager is estimating costs for a new software development project. The company has completed three similar projects in the past. Which cost estimation technique is most appropriate in this scenario?
Analogous uses historical data from similar projects, appropriate here.
Why this answer
Analogous estimation uses historical data from similar projects to estimate costs. It is quick and reliable when past projects are similar. Parametric uses statistical relationships, and bottom-up is detailed and time-consuming.
A project manager is developing a communication plan. Which of the following should be determined first?
Needs should be identified first to tailor the plan.
Why this answer
The first step in communication planning is to identify stakeholder communication needs, including what information they need, when, and how. This ensures that the plan addresses all requirements.
During the executing phase, a vendor delivers a product that does not meet the specifications outlined in the SOW. Which document should the project manager reference first to address this issue?
The SOW specifies the deliverables and acceptance criteria.
Why this answer
The SOW (Statement of Work) defines the deliverables, specifications, and performance criteria. It is the primary reference to verify compliance. The contract includes legal terms but the SOW details the technical requirements.
A project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 1.2. Which TWO conclusions can be drawn? (Select TWO.)
Correct: SPI=1.2 > 1 indicates ahead of schedule.
Why this answer
CPI < 1 means over budget; SPI > 1 means ahead of schedule. EAC > BAC typically when CPI < 1, and TCPI to meet BAC is >1.
During project closing, which THREE activities should be performed?
Part of project closing.
Why this answer
Closing includes formal acceptance, lessons learned, and archiving documents. Resource leveling occurs during planning/execution; risk identification occurs during planning.
A project has a budget at completion (BAC) of $200,000. The actual cost (AC) is $80,000, earned value (EV) is $60,000, and planned value (PV) is $90,000. What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the project will continue to perform at the same cost efficiency?
EAC = BAC/CPI = 200,000 / 0.75 = 266,667.
Why this answer
CPI = EV/AC = 60,000/80,000 = 0.75. EAC = BAC/CPI = 200,000/0.75 = $266,667.
Which document contains all identified risks, their probability and impact, and planned response strategies?
Correct: The risk register contains risk details.
Why this answer
The risk register is the central repository for risk information throughout the project.
A project manager is developing a communication plan. Which two factors should be considered for each stakeholder? (Select TWO.)
Understanding what information stakeholders need is essential.
Why this answer
Communication needs and preferred frequency are key inputs to the communication plan.
A project manager receives a change request from a stakeholder. What is the first step the project manager should take?
Impact analysis is the first step in change control.
Why this answer
The first step is to perform an impact analysis to assess the effects of the change before submission to the CCB.
A project manager needs to communicate the project's progress to stakeholders with high power and low interest. According to the power/interest grid, which communication approach is most appropriate?
Correct: Keep satisfied with minimal but sufficient info.
Why this answer
Stakeholders with high power and low interest should be kept satisfied. They need sufficient information to ensure satisfaction but not overwhelmed with details.
A project manager is calculating the cost performance index (CPI) for a project. The earned value (EV) is $50,000 and the actual cost (AC) is $60,000. What does the CPI indicate? (Select TWO correct statements.)
Correct. CPI < 1 means over budget.
Why this answer
CPI = EV/AC = 50000/60000 = 0.83. A CPI less than 1 indicates the project is over budget. The project is spending more than planned for the work performed.
A project manager is creating a WBS. Which two best practices should be followed? (Select TWO)
WBS focuses on deliverables.
Why this answer
The WBS should be decomposed to work packages, and each element should represent a deliverable, not an activity.
A project has an EV of $40,000, PV of $50,000, and AC of $45,000. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?
Correct: CPI = EV/AC = 40000/45000 = 0.89.
Why this answer
CPI = EV/AC = $40,000/$45,000 = 0.89.
A change request to add a new feature has been submitted. After impact analysis, the change control board (CCB) approves the change. What should the project manager do next?
Approved changes must be integrated into the project.
Why this answer
After approval, the project manager must implement the change, which includes updating all relevant baselines (scope, schedule, cost) and communicating the change to stakeholders.
In a power/interest grid, stakeholders with high power and low interest should be managed with which approach?
Keep satisfied is appropriate for high power, low interest stakeholders.
Why this answer
Stakeholders with high power but low interest need to be kept satisfied to maintain their support without overwhelming them with information.
A change request to add a new feature is submitted. The project manager performs an impact analysis and presents it to the Change Control Board (CCB). The CCB approves the change. What is the next step?
Correct: Approved changes are implemented and baselines updated.
Why this answer
After approval, the change must be implemented and project baselines (scope, schedule, cost) updated to reflect the approved change.
A project has three activities on the critical path. Activity A has a duration of 5 days, Activity B has a duration of 3 days, and Activity C has a duration of 4 days. What is the total float for any activity on the critical path?
Critical path activities have zero float.
Why this answer
Activities on the critical path have zero float by definition.
A project manager is creating a project schedule. Which THREE items are typically included in a schedule baseline?
Part of the baseline.
Why this answer
The schedule baseline includes the approved start and end dates, milestones, and activity dependencies. It is not updated with changes until approved.
During risk management, a team identifies a risk with a 20% probability of occurrence and a potential cost impact of $50,000. What is the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of this risk?
Correct calculation.
Why this answer
EMV = Probability × Impact = 0.20 × $50,000 = $10,000. EMV is used to quantify risks in monetary terms.
A project has earned value (EV) of $120,000, planned value (PV) of $100,000, and actual cost (AC) of $110,000. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?
CPI = EV/AC = 1.09.
Why this answer
CPI = EV / AC = $120,000 / $110,000 = 1.09.
During project closing, which of the following is the primary purpose of the lessons learned document?
Lessons learned are used to improve future project performance.
Why this answer
Lessons learned capture knowledge and experience from the project to improve future projects. While they may inform the final report, their main value is for continuous improvement.
A project manager is estimating the cost of a new software development project. The project is similar to a previous project that cost $500,000. The PM adjusts for size and complexity and estimates the new project will cost $600,000. Which estimation technique is being used?
Correct: Analogous uses similar past projects.
Why this answer
Analogous estimation uses historical data from similar projects to estimate current project costs, adjusting for differences.
Which of the following is a key input to the change control process when a change request is submitted?
Impact analysis assesses the effects of the change before approval.
Why this answer
When a change request is submitted, an impact analysis is performed to evaluate the effects on scope, schedule, cost, and quality. This analysis is then presented to the Change Control Board for decision.
A project has an Earned Value (EV) of $50,000, Actual Cost (AC) of $60,000, and Planned Value (PV) of $55,000. What is the Cost Performance Index (CPI), and what does it indicate?
Correct: CPI = 0.83, less than 1 means over budget.
Why this answer
CPI = EV/AC = 50,000/60,000 = 0.83. A CPI less than 1 indicates the project is over budget.
A project has an Earned Value (EV) of $50,000, Planned Value (PV) of $60,000, and Actual Cost (AC) of $55,000. What is the cost performance index (CPI) and what does it indicate?
Correct: CPI < 1 means over budget.
Why this answer
CPI = EV/AC = 50000/55000 ≈ 0.91. A CPI less than 1 indicates the project is over budget.
A project manager is developing the project charter. Which of the following should be included as a key element in the charter to define the project's boundaries?
High-level scope is a key element of the project charter that defines boundaries.
Why this answer
The project charter includes high-level scope, which defines the boundaries of the project. Assumptions and constraints are also included, but the high-level scope specifically sets the boundaries.
A project manager is calculating the critical path. The network diagram shows two paths: Path A: A(3 days) → B(4 days) → C(2 days) = 9 days; Path B: D(5 days) → E(1 day) → F(3 days) = 9 days. Both have total float of zero. What is the total float for an activity on Path A?
Critical path activities have zero float.
Why this answer
On a critical path, all activities have zero total float.
A project has a critical path duration of 45 days. Activity X on the critical path has an optimistic duration of 5 days, a pessimistic duration of 13 days, and a most likely duration of 8 days. What is the expected duration of activity X using PERT?
Correct PERT calculation.
Why this answer
PERT expected duration = (Optimistic + 4*Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6 = (5 + 4*8 + 13)/6 = (5+32+13)/6 = 50/6 ≈ 8.33 days.
In a network diagram, Activity B has a duration of 5 days. Its predecessor is Activity A (duration 3 days) with a finish-to-start relationship. Activity C (duration 4 days) has a start-to-start relationship with Activity B with a 2-day lag. What is the earliest day Activity C can start?
Correct: A finishes day 3, B starts day 4, C starts 2 days after B start = day 6.
Why this answer
Activity A finishes at day 3. Activity B starts at day 4 (FS+1? Actually FS means B starts after A finishes, so B starts day 4). With SS+2 lag, C can start 2 days after B starts, i.e., day 6.
A project has a budget at completion (BAC) of $200,000. After two months, the earned value (EV) is $80,000 and the actual cost (AC) is $90,000. The CPI is 0.89. Which THREE statements are correct regarding cost performance and forecasting?
Correct. EAC = BAC/CPI ≈ $224,719.
Why this answer
CPI = EV/AC = 80/90 = 0.89. The project is over budget. EAC = BAC/CPI = 200,000/0.89 ≈ $224,719.
VAC = BAC - EAC = 200,000 - 224,719 = -$24,719 (overrun).
A project manager is evaluating a risk with a probability of 30% and an impact of $50,000. What is the expected monetary value (EMV) of this risk?
EMV = 0.30 × 50,000 = 15,000.
Why this answer
EMV = Probability × Impact = 0.30 × $50,000 = $15,000.
A project team is entering the Storming stage of Tuckman's model. Which TWO characteristics are typical of this stage?
Correct: Storming involves disagreements and competition.
Why this answer
Storming is characterized by conflict, competition, and challenges to authority as team members express differing opinions.
During project executing, the team is developing a communication plan. Which THREE factors should the project manager consider when determining the communication needs of stakeholders?
Correct. The method is essential to ensure effective communication.
Why this answer
A communication plan considers stakeholder information needs, including their required information, preferred frequency, and method of communication. Organizational culture and project complexity are also relevant.
During project closing, which TWO activities are typically performed?
Correct: archiving is part of closing.
Why this answer
Project closing includes formal acceptance from the sponsor and archiving project documents. Releasing resources is also part of closing, but it's one of the two correct answers here.
During project closing, which activity involves obtaining formal acceptance from the customer or sponsor that deliverables meet requirements?
Formal acceptance confirms deliverables are accepted.
Why this answer
Formal acceptance is obtained from the customer or sponsor during closing, often via a project acceptance form.
Which project management process group involves obtaining formal acceptance of the project deliverables and archiving project documents?
Closing includes formal acceptance, lessons learned, and archiving.
Why this answer
Closing includes formal acceptance, lessons learned, and archiving project documents.
A project team is in the storming stage of Tuckman's model. Which behavior is most likely observed?
Correct: Storming involves conflict and questioning.
Why this answer
In the storming stage, team members may challenge each other and the project manager, leading to conflicts as they establish roles.
A project manager identifies a risk that a key team member might leave during the project. To reduce the impact, she cross-trains other team members. Which risk response strategy is being applied?
Cross-training reduces the impact of losing a team member.
Why this answer
Mitigation reduces the probability or impact of a risk. Cross-training reduces impact.
In earned value management, the project has an EV of $50,000, PV of $60,000, and AC of $55,000. What is the cost variance (CV)?
CV = EV - AC = 50k - 55k = -5k.
Why this answer
CV = EV - AC = $50,000 - $55,000 = -$5,000, indicating the project is over budget.
A project manager is assigning resources to activities. Activity X requires a specialized skill that is only available from a contractor. The project manager decides to hire the contractor. Which TWO documents are most likely to be used to define the work and terms for this contractor? (Select TWO).
The SOW describes the work to be performed.
Why this answer
The SOW defines the work to be performed, and the contract defines the legal terms and conditions. The RFP is used to solicit bids, and the WBS is a planning tool, not a procurement document. The project charter authorizes the project.
A project manager is developing a communication plan. Which two elements should be included in the plan? (Select TWO)
Frequency is a key component.
Why this answer
A communication plan should include stakeholder communication needs and frequency, as well as the method of communication.
A project team is in the Performing stage of Tuckman's model. Which TWO behaviors are characteristic of this stage?
Correct. In Performing, the team is goal-oriented and efficient.
Why this answer
In the Performing stage, the team is functioning effectively, with established trust and processes. Interdependence and focus on goals are key characteristics.
A project manager is decomposing the project scope into smaller components. Which output is produced?
Correct: WBS is the output of decomposition.
Why this answer
Decomposition of scope results in a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), which breaks down deliverables into work packages.
A project manager is in the process of developing the project charter. Which of the following would be included in the project charter?
The charter includes high-level objectives, constraints, and assumptions.
Why this answer
The project charter includes high-level scope, objectives, assumptions, and constraints, but detailed work packages are developed during planning.
During project execution, a team member proposes a change that will affect the scope baseline. What is the first step the project manager should take?
A formal change request initiates the change control process.
Why this answer
The first step in change control is to submit a change request, which then undergoes impact analysis.
A project has a budget at completion (BAC) of $200,000, earned value (EV) of $120,000, and actual cost (AC) of $130,000. What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the cost performance is expected to continue?
EAC = BAC / CPI = 200000 / (120000/130000) ≈ 216,667.
Why this answer
If cost performance continues, EAC = BAC / CPI = BAC / (EV/AC) = 200000 / (120000/130000) = 200000 / 0.9231 ≈ $216,667.
In a fixed-price contract, which party bears the risk of cost overruns?
The seller bears the risk of cost overruns.
Why this answer
In a fixed-price contract, the seller bears the risk of cost overruns because the price is fixed.
During the executing phase, a project manager observes that team members are starting to collaborate and share ideas openly. According to Tuckman's stages of team development, which stage is the team likely in?
Norming involves collaboration and open sharing of ideas.
Why this answer
In the norming stage, team members begin to work together and share ideas openly.
A project manager is calculating the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) for a risk event. The probability of the risk occurring is 20%, and the impact if it occurs is $50,000. What is the EMV?
Correct: 20% of $50,000 = $10,000.
Why this answer
EMV = Probability × Impact = 0.20 × $50,000 = $10,000. Positive EMV typically indicates an opportunity, but here it's a threat so negative.
A project manager is estimating the cost of a new software development project. They use historical data from a similar project to derive the cost per function point and multiply it by the expected number of function points. Which estimation technique is being used?
Analogous estimation uses historical data from similar projects.
Why this answer
Analogous estimation uses historical data from similar projects.
A project manager is developing the project charter. Which of the following should be included as a key element of the project charter?
The project charter contains high-level budget and schedule estimates.
Why this answer
The project charter formally authorizes the project and includes the project purpose, objectives, high-level scope, budget, schedule, assumptions, constraints, and the authority of the project manager. The other options are developed later in the planning or executing phases.
A project is in the Monitoring and Controlling phase. A change request has been submitted to add a new feature. The change control board (CCB) has approved the change. Which THREE actions should the project manager take next?
Correct. Stakeholders need to be informed of approved changes.
Why this answer
After approval, the project manager must update the relevant project baselines (e.g., scope, schedule, cost), implement the change, and then monitor its effect. Communication is also key, but updating baselines and implementing are primary.
A project team is estimating costs for a new software development project. They use data from a similar previous project and adjust for size differences. Which estimating technique is being used?
Analogous uses past similar projects as basis.
Why this answer
Analogous estimation uses historical data from similar projects, adjusted for differences.
A project manager is identifying stakeholders for a new product launch. She uses a power/interest grid to categorize stakeholders. For which TWO quadrants should the project manager apply the strategy of 'Manage Closely'?
Correct. These are key players who require close management.
Why this answer
The power/interest grid categorizes stakeholders by their power (ability to influence) and interest (concern about project outcomes). 'Manage Closely' applies to high-power, high-interest stakeholders (key players) who require active engagement.
A project manager is identifying response strategies for a risk that could impact the project schedule. Which TWO options are risk response strategies? (Select TWO.)
Transfer shifts risk to a third party.
Why this answer
Common risk response strategies include avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept. Escalate and ignore are not standard strategies.
Which cost estimation technique uses historical data from similar projects to estimate the current project?
Analogous uses similar project history.
Why this answer
Analogous estimation relies on historical data from similar projects.
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