SY0-701 Timed Practice Test 2 — 10 Questions

Question 1

Based on the exhibit, what is the best handling decision for the requested file?

Accepted Answer

Treat it as Restricted, redact unnecessary fields, and provide only the minimum approved dataset through a logged encrypted transfer.. Option D is correct because the file contains personally identifiable information (PII) in the form of a Social Security Number (SSN), which requires handling under a Restricted classification per most data governance frameworks. The correct procedure is to redact unnecessary fields, such as the full SSN, and transmit only the minimum approved dataset via a logged encrypted transfer (e.g., using SFTP or HTTPS with TLS 1.2+) to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and auditability. This aligns with the principle of least privilege and data minimization, which are core to security program management.

Answer

Share the full file by email as Confidential because only the last four digits of the SSN are included.

Answer

Label it Public because the contractor needs the information to troubleshoot effectively.

Answer

Mark it Internal and place it on the shared project drive for easy access.

Question 2

An organization is evaluating a payroll SaaS provider after the procurement team asks for evidence that the vendor's security controls were designed and operating effectively during the past year. Which document should the security team review first?

Accepted Answer

SOC 2 Type II report. A SOC 2 Type II report provides an independent auditor's assessment of a service organization's controls over a period of time (typically 6–12 months), confirming that security controls were not only designed but also operating effectively. This directly meets the procurement team's need for evidence of the vendor's security posture over the past year, as required for evaluating a SaaS provider handling sensitive payroll data.

Answer

Memorandum of understanding

Answer

Software license agreement

Answer

Network diagram of the vendor's data center

Question 3

Based on the exhibit, what additional control is the best fit?

Current controls on the finance share:
- SMB signing enabled
- Weekly access review
- Nightly backups to immutable storage
- Antivirus scans at 02:00

Incident: a valid VPN account was used to access 40,000 files in 8 minutes and copy them to a local drive.
Goal: detect unauthorized bulk access quickly before exfiltration completes.

Accepted Answer

Add file access auditing with alert thresholds forwarded to the SIEM.. File access auditing with alert thresholds forwarded to the SIEM directly addresses the goal of detecting unauthorized bulk access quickly. By monitoring for abnormal file access patterns—such as 40,000 files in 8 minutes—the SIEM can trigger an alert before exfiltration completes, enabling rapid response. This control complements the existing weekly access review by providing real-time detection.

Answer

Increase the backup schedule from nightly to hourly.

Answer

Rename the share to a less obvious name.

Answer

Disable SMB signing so the file transfer runs faster.

Question 4

Based on the exhibit, what is the best next control to prevent noncompliant mobile devices from accessing corporate email while still allowing IT to wipe company data from lost phones?

Accepted Answer

Enforce conditional access so only compliant MDM-enrolled devices can reach email and enable selective wipe for corporate data.. Option A is correct because it combines conditional access policies (e.g., Azure AD Conditional Access or Intune compliance policies) to block noncompliant devices from accessing corporate email, while using MDM selective wipe to remove only corporate data (e.g., email, documents) without affecting personal data on the device. This approach enforces security without requiring a full device wipe, preserving user privacy and IT control.

Answer

Require users to set a longer password on the email app and keep the current access policy.

Answer

Disable email on all mobile devices and force users to use desktop computers only.

Answer

Rely on a remote full factory reset whenever a device is lost or reported stolen.

Question 5

Based on the exhibit, what is the best response to the facilities manager's request?

Accepted Answer

Deny the request and direct the manager to use an approved work-contact list or seek privacy review.. The facilities manager's request to export employee contact information for a separate system likely violates data privacy policies and potentially regulations like GDPR or CCPA. Option B is correct because the proper procedure is to deny the ad-hoc export and direct the manager to use an approved work-contact list or seek a privacy review, ensuring data handling complies with organizational data governance and privacy requirements.

Answer

Provide the export because the requester is a manager with a legitimate business relationship to employees.

Answer

Send the data to the manager if the manager promises not to share it externally.

Answer

Store the export in a shared drive so multiple teams can use it for convenience.

Question 6

Before applying a major patch to a virtual machine, the administrator wants a quick way to return the VM to its exact pre-change state if the patch fails. What should the administrator create?

Accepted Answer

A snapshot of the virtual machine. A snapshot captures the exact state of the virtual machine (disk, memory, and power state) at a point in time, allowing the administrator to revert instantly if the patch fails. This is the fastest and most storage-efficient method for a quick rollback compared to a full backup, which is slower and more resource-intensive.

Answer

A full backup to removable media

Answer

A separate VLAN for the virtual machine

Answer

A digital certificate for the patch server

Question 7

Based on the exhibit, what is the best immediate action for the SOC or IR team?

A finance workstation shows evidence of a macro-launched script, followed by file renaming and lateral SMB traffic to two other hosts. The team has not yet determined the full scope of the incident.

Accepted Answer

Isolate the host from the network and revoke its remote access to stop further spread.. The exhibit shows a macro-launched script, file renaming, and lateral SMB traffic to two other hosts, indicating active lateral movement. Isolating the host (e.g., via network access control or disabling the switch port) immediately stops the spread of the malware to other systems, preserving the ability to investigate without further compromise. This aligns with the first step in incident response: containment before eradication or recovery.

Answer

Restore the workstation from backup immediately before preserving any evidence.

Answer

Run a vulnerability scan against the subnet to see whether the malware exploited an unpatched service.

Answer

Notify users to ignore the issue until the next maintenance window because the incident is likely self-limiting.

Question 8

Based on the exhibit, what type of web attack is most likely taking place?

Accepted Answer

SQL injection, because the attacker is manipulating the database query with crafted input.. Option B is correct because the exhibit shows a URL parameter (e.g., `id=1 OR 1=1`) that is being passed to a database query. The attacker is injecting SQL syntax to manipulate the query logic, which is the hallmark of SQL injection. The 500 error likely results from the database server crashing or returning an invalid result set, confirming that the injection is affecting the database.

Answer

Cross-site scripting, because the input is visible in the URL and causes an error.

Answer

Broken authentication, because the application returns a 500 error.

Answer

Insecure deserialization, because the application is parsing attacker-controlled data.

Question 9

During a disaster recovery test, what is the most important thing to confirm about the backup?

Accepted Answer

That the data can be restored and is usable after recovery.. The most important thing to confirm about a backup during a disaster recovery test is that the data can be restored and is usable after recovery. This validates the integrity and completeness of the backup, ensuring that the recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO) can be met. Simply verifying that backup files exist does not guarantee they are not corrupted or that the restoration process will succeed, which is why a full restore test is critical.

Answer

That the backup files exist in storage.

Answer

That the backup system uses encryption.

Answer

That the backup is stored on tape instead of disk.

Question 10

Based on the exhibit, what wireless threat is most likely occurring?

Accepted Answer

Evil twin access point. The exhibit shows a legitimate access point (SSID: 'CorpNet') with a second, rogue access point broadcasting the same SSID but with a stronger signal. This is the classic behavior of an evil twin attack, where an attacker sets up a fraudulent AP to intercept client connections and capture credentials or sensitive data. The victim's device automatically associates with the stronger signal, believing it is the legitimate network.

Answer

Bluetooth pairing abuse

Answer

NFC skimming

Answer

DNS poisoning

SY0-701 Timed Practice Test 2 — 10 Questions

Exhibit

SY0-701 Timed Practice Test 2 — 10 Questions

Exhibit