SY0-701 Practice Test 2 — 30 Questions

Question 1

Leadership is deciding between two security controls for a customer portal outage risk. Finance wants to compare the options in dollars, using expected loss, not just a high/medium/low rating. Which approach should the analyst use?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

Quantitative risk analysis, because it expresses likelihood and impact in monetary terms.. Quantitative risk analysis (A) is correct because it assigns monetary values to both the likelihood and impact of a risk, enabling a direct dollar-based comparison of expected loss. The Finance team's requirement for a dollar comparison rules out qualitative ratings, making quantitative analysis the only approach that meets their needs.

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Qualitative risk analysis, because it uses categories like critical, medium, and low.

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Business impact analysis, because it identifies which business processes are important.

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Risk avoidance, because eliminating the activity removes the threat completely.

Question 2

Based on the exhibit, which principle should the organization enforce to reduce fraud risk while keeping the business process functional?

Accepted Answer

Separation of duties, because no single user should be able to complete every high-risk finance step alone.. Separation of duties (SoD) is the correct principle because it prevents any single employee from completing all steps in a high-risk financial transaction alone. By requiring at least two people to authorize and execute critical actions—such as initiating a payment and approving it—the organization reduces the risk of internal fraud without blocking the business workflow. This directly addresses the scenario where a single user could otherwise create, approve, and release a fraudulent payment.

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Least privilege, because each employee should only have the fewest permissions needed for the shared account.

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Need-to-know, because only employees with confidential financial data should see the workflow details.

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Defense in depth, because the organization should add more security layers around the finance process.

Question 3

A company is building a public web app with three tiers. Internet users should reach only the web tier, and the app tier should never be reachable from the internet. Which two network design choices support this goal? Select two.

Accepted Answer

Place the web server in a DMZ or public-facing zone.. Placing the web server in a DMZ (demilitarized zone) or public-facing zone allows internet traffic to reach only the web tier while isolating the internal network. This is a standard security architecture where the DMZ acts as a buffer, and firewall rules permit inbound HTTP/HTTPS (ports 80/443) only to the web servers, not to the application or database tiers.

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Allow inbound traffic from the internet directly to the application servers.

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Put the database on the guest Wi-Fi VLAN.

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Use the same flat network for all three tiers.

Question 4

HR stores scanned government IDs collected during onboarding. The retention policy says the files may be kept for 90 days after employment verification, then destroyed. What should security require?

Accepted Answer

Store the files in an encrypted repository and securely dispose of them when retention expires. It aligns with the principle of data minimization and the retention policy: storing scanned government IDs in an encrypted repository ensures confidentiality and integrity, while secure disposal after the 90-day retention period meets compliance requirements (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA) and reduces risk of data breaches. Security must enforce both protection during storage and timely destruction to prevent unauthorized access or legal liability.

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Keep the files indefinitely in case a future audit asks for them

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Move the files to a shared folder so more HR staff can access them

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Print the scanned IDs and place them in a locked cabinet instead of keeping digital copies

Question 5

Based on the exhibit, which key management improvement best preserves recoverability if the primary backup server is lost?

Accepted Answer

Keep the private key in an HSM or secure escrow with tested recovery procedures.. Storing the private key in a Hardware Security Module (HSM) or secure escrow ensures it remains available even if the primary backup server is lost. HSMs provide tamper-resistant key storage and support tested recovery procedures, which is critical for decrypting backups and maintaining recoverability. This approach separates the key from the backup data, preventing a single point of failure.

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Store the private key on the same backup server so recovery is faster.

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Replace AES with hashing so the archive no longer needs a key.

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Send the private key to backup operators by email so they can restore data quickly.

Question 6

A security analyst is reviewing the organization’s security awareness program. Which three of the following are key metrics that demonstrate the effectiveness of the program? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Percentage of employees who complete annual security training. The percentage of employees who complete annual security training is a key metric because it measures participation in the foundational awareness activity. The number of phishing simulation clicks before and after training directly quantifies behavioral change, showing whether training reduces susceptibility to social engineering. The total count of security incidents reported by employees indicates whether the program has successfully fostered a culture of reporting, which is critical for early threat detection.

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Average time to patch critical vulnerabilities in production systems

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Number of firewall rule changes approved per quarter

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Percentage of servers with full disk encryption enabled

Question 7

A user receives a phone call from someone who claims to be a member of the company's IT support team. The caller states that the user's account has been compromised and requests the user's username, password, and the current multi-factor authentication (MFA) code to 'verify identity and secure the account.' Which type of social engineering attack is being attempted?

Accepted Answer

Vishing. B is correct because vishing (voice phishing) is a social engineering attack conducted over the phone, where the attacker impersonates a trusted entity (IT support) to trick the victim into revealing sensitive information such as credentials and MFA codes. The request for the current MFA code is a key indicator, as it would allow the attacker to bypass multi-factor authentication in real time.

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Spear phishing

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Pretexting

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Tailgating

Question 8

A security architect is designing a new data center network that will host public-facing web servers and internal application servers handling confidential employee data. The architect places the web servers in a DMZ and the internal application servers on a separate internal network segment. A stateful firewall is configured to allow inbound HTTP/HTTPS traffic from the internet to the web servers only. The firewall also permits only the web servers to initiate outbound connections to the internal application servers on a specific TCP port, and all such traffic is encrypted using TLS. Which security architecture principle is this design primarily intended to enforce?

Accepted Answer

Defense in depth. The design enforces defense in depth by layering multiple security controls: a DMZ isolates public-facing web servers from internal networks, a stateful firewall restricts inbound traffic to HTTP/HTTPS only, and outbound connections from web servers to internal application servers are limited to a specific TCP port with TLS encryption. This layered approach ensures that even if one control fails (e.g., a web server is compromised), the attacker still faces additional barriers to reach sensitive internal systems.

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Least privilege

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Separation of duties

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Zero trust

Question 9

A security analyst receives an alert from the intrusion detection system indicating that a workstation in the finance department has established an outbound connection to a known malicious IP address using an encrypted protocol. The analyst verifies the alert and checks the user's activity logs, which show no legitimate business reason for the connection. According to the incident response process, what should the analyst do NEXT?

Accepted Answer

Isolate the workstation from the network to contain the threat.. According to the NIST SP 800-61 incident response process, containment is the immediate priority after verification to prevent further damage or data exfiltration. Since the workstation has an active encrypted outbound connection to a known malicious IP with no legitimate business reason, isolating the network interface (e.g., disabling the port, blocking the MAC address, or unplugging the cable) stops the threat from communicating while preserving the system state for later analysis. This aligns with the containment phase, which must precede eradication or full forensic analysis.

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Begin the eradication phase by immediately reimaging the workstation.

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Conduct a full forensic analysis of the workstation's hard drive.

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Update the firewall rule to block all outbound traffic to the malicious IP.

Question 10

Based on the exhibit, what is the best conclusion about the signed document?

Accepted Answer

The invoice was not changed after signing and the signer’s certificate chain validated correctly.. A valid digital signature provides both integrity (the document was not altered after signing) and authentication (the signer's certificate chain validates to a trusted root). The exhibit shows a successful signature validation, which cryptographically proves that the invoice has not been modified since signing and that the signing certificate is trusted.

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The invoice is confidential because the signature encrypts the document contents.

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The invoice can be edited if the timestamp is still within business hours.

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The sender’s private key is now public because the certificate verified successfully.

Question 11

A business unit wants to keep using a customer portal even though a low-likelihood, high-impact dependency risk was identified. Leadership does not want to stop the service, but it does want to lower exposure and formally document the remaining risk. Which two actions best fit that approach? Select two.

Accepted Answer

Implement compensating controls to reduce the chance or impact of the event.. Implementing compensating controls is a standard risk mitigation strategy that reduces the likelihood or impact of a dependency risk without stopping the service. For a customer portal, this could include adding web application firewall (WAF) rules, rate limiting, or failover mechanisms to lower exposure while keeping the portal operational.

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Immediately shut down the portal until the dependency risk is completely eliminated.

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Ignore the finding until the next annual audit cycle.

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Transfer the issue to the help desk by opening a routine support ticket.

Question 12

A security architect is designing a defense strategy for a database containing sensitive customer records. The architect implements a network firewall to restrict inbound traffic to only the application server, enforces file-level encryption for the database files, requires multi-factor authentication for all administrative access, and deploys a database activity monitoring system to alert on unusual queries. Which security principle is the architect primarily applying?

Accepted Answer

Defense in depth. The architect is applying defense in depth by layering multiple independent security controls: a network firewall, file-level encryption, multi-factor authentication, and database activity monitoring. This strategy ensures that if one control fails, others still provide protection, which is the core principle of defense in depth. Each layer addresses a different attack vector, making it significantly harder for an attacker to compromise the database.

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Least privilege

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Separation of duties

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Fail safe

Question 13

A small company is moving its public web app to a new network. The front-end server must be reachable from the internet, the application server should only accept traffic from the front end, and the database must never be reachable from the internet or user VLANs. Which design best meets these requirements with the least exposure?

Accepted Answer

Place the web server in a DMZ, the application server in an internal subnet, and the database in a separate restricted subnet with firewall rules between each tier.. It implements a classic three-tier architecture with network segmentation. The web server in the DMZ is isolated from internal networks but accessible from the internet, the application server in an internal subnet is protected by firewall rules that only allow traffic from the DMZ, and the database in a separate restricted subnet is further isolated with firewall rules that only permit traffic from the application server. This design minimizes exposure by enforcing least privilege and defense in depth, using network-layer segmentation rather than relying solely on host-based controls.

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Place all three servers in the same server VLAN and use host-based firewalls to separate them.

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Place the database in the DMZ so the web and application servers can access it directly without extra firewall rules.

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Place the web server on the user VLAN and use NAT to hide the database server from the internet.

Question 14

A company is redesigning how systems are separated in its office and data center network. Match each network design element to the scenario it best supports. Use each term once.

Accepted Answer

VLAN: Separates broadcast domains logically. VLANs separate broadcast domains, subnets divide IP networks, ACLs filter traffic, DMZs isolate public servers, VPNs provide secure remote access, and NAT translates private to public IPs.

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ACL: Divides IP networks into smaller segments

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NAT: Provides secure remote access over public internet

Question 15

Match each procurement need to the vendor due diligence artifact or control that best fits.
1. Procurement wants independent evidence that a SaaS provider's controls operated effectively during the last year.
2. The team wants to know what files, libraries, and modules were included in a supplier's software build.
3. The business needs a signed agreement that defines how customer data is handled and what the vendor must do if an incident occurs.
4. The procurement team wants answers about MFA, logging, and incident response before onboarding a cloud supplier.

Accepted Answer

SOC 2 Type II: Independent evidence that a SaaS provider's controls operated effectively during the last year.. Each artifact or control directly addresses the procurement need: SOC 2 Type II provides independent audit evidence; SBOM lists software components; DPA is the legal agreement for data handling; security questionnaires gather specific security practices; pen test reports validate controls; BCP ensures continuity.

Answer

Pen test report: Independent evidence that a SaaS provider's controls operated effectively during the last year.

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BCP: A signed agreement that defines how customer data is handled and what the vendor must do if an incident occurs.

Question 16

Based on the exhibit, what security issue is most likely present?

Accepted Answer

Exposed service, because management and streaming ports are listening on all interfaces and allowed from anywhere.. The exhibit shows that both the management interface (TCP 443) and the streaming interface (TCP 554) are bound to 0.0.0.0 (all interfaces) and the firewall rules allow traffic from 0.0.0.0/0 (any source). This exposes the camera's web management and RTSP streaming services to the entire internet, making it vulnerable to unauthorized access, reconnaissance, and potential exploitation. An exposed service of this nature is a common entry point for attackers to compromise IoT devices.

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Weak permissions, because the camera streams video to multiple ports.

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Default credentials, because the admin login is enabled.

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Outdated component, because firmware version 1.0.3 is listed.

Question 17

A security analyst is reviewing the session management implementation of a web application. The application generates session tokens by computing the MD5 hash of the concatenation of the username and the current server timestamp rounded to the nearest hour. An attacker has obtained a valid session token for her own account and discovers that she can forge tokens for other users by simply substituting the username in the hash calculation with a known target username. Which type of attack is the web application most vulnerable to?

Accepted Answer

Session prediction. The session token is generated using MD5(username + timestamp rounded to the nearest hour). Since the attacker knows her own token and can compute the hash for any username with the same timestamp, she can predict tokens for other users. This is a classic session prediction vulnerability, as the token generation lacks sufficient entropy and relies on predictable inputs.

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Session hijacking via cross-site scripting (XSS)

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Session replay attack

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Session fixation

Question 18

In a virtualized environment, several workloads share the same physical host and the same IP subnet. After one payroll VM is compromised, the security team wants to prevent that VM from freely scanning or reaching the other workloads on the host. Which control best addresses this lateral-movement risk?

Accepted Answer

Microsegmentation with policy rules applied per workload or per VM. Microsegmentation allows granular security policies to be applied per workload or per VM, even within the same subnet and on the same hypervisor. By enforcing firewall rules at the virtual switch or hypervisor level, it prevents a compromised payroll VM from scanning or communicating laterally with other VMs on the same host, directly addressing the lateral-movement risk.

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Expanding the subnet mask so all workloads are easier to reach

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Creating a shared administrator account for all virtual machines

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Disabling DHCP and forcing every VM to use a static IP address

Question 19

A security analyst at a hospital is reviewing user permissions in the electronic health record (EHR) system. The analyst discovers that all nursing staff accounts are members of the 'Administrators' group, which grants full read and write access to all patient records, as well as the ability to modify system configuration settings. The nursing staff's job responsibilities only require viewing and updating records for patients currently assigned to them. Which security principle is most directly violated by this configuration?

Accepted Answer

Least privilege. The principle of least privilege dictates that users should be granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions. In this case, nursing staff only need read and write access to records of currently assigned patients, but membership in the 'Administrators' group grants full read/write access to all patient records and the ability to modify system configuration settings, which far exceeds their job requirements. This directly violates least privilege by providing excessive, unnecessary privileges that increase the risk of unauthorized access or accidental misconfiguration.

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Defense in depth

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Non-repudiation

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Availability

Question 20

A tester enters a crafted search term into an internal web application and sees no error message, but the page response always delays by exactly five seconds when the input includes a single quote followed by a conditional sleep function. The returned results look normal, so the tester repeats the request several times and the timing remains consistent. Which attack is most likely being attempted?

Accepted Answer

Time-based blind SQL injection, because the attacker is inferring database behavior from delayed responses.. The consistent five-second delay triggered by a single quote followed by a conditional sleep function (e.g., ' OR SLEEP(5)) indicates a time-based blind SQL injection. The tester is inferring database behavior from response timing because the application does not display error messages or output differences, but the database executes a sleep command when the injected SQL is syntactically valid. This technique exploits the database's ability to conditionally pause execution, allowing an attacker to extract data bit by bit based on true/false conditions.

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Reflected cross-site scripting, because the tester's input is being echoed back into the response.

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Command injection, because the application is pausing while executing system-level sleep commands.

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Session fixation, because the tester is manipulating how the application handles user input over time.