SY0-701 Practice Test 4 — 25 Questions

Question 1

After a merger, dozens of laptops arrive with inconsistent settings and a history of unsupported utilities installed by the previous owner. The security team wants to establish a known-good configuration, reduce future drift, and accelerate remediation of newly discovered vulnerabilities. Which three actions best support that goal? Select three.

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

Build and deploy a secure baseline or gold image for the laptops.. A is correct because building and deploying a secure baseline or gold image ensures all laptops start from a known-good configuration, eliminating inconsistencies and unsupported utilities from the previous owner. This directly supports the goal of establishing a trusted state and provides a reference point for detecting future drift.

Answer

Allow each user to customize local security settings for productivity.

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Skip validation after patching because the baseline will always remain correct.

Question 2

A Windows file server was built from a gold image, but six months later a scan shows Remote Desktop enabled, SMBv1 re-enabled, and Print Spooler running. The same drift appears on several other servers after emergency troubleshooting. Security wants to return the environment to the approved baseline and prevent the changes from coming back. What is the best solution?

Accepted Answer

Deploy configuration management that enforces the hardened baseline continuously. Configuration management tools like Ansible, DSC, or Group Policy can continuously enforce a hardened baseline by reverting unauthorized changes (e.g., disabling SMBv1, stopping Print Spooler, disabling RDP) at a defined interval or on a trigger. This prevents configuration drift without relying on manual intervention or reactive scanning, directly addressing the root cause of the problem.

Answer

Document the deviations and rely on manual checks after each maintenance window

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Run a vulnerability scan more often and close the findings in the ticketing system

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Increase storage capacity so the image can be rebuilt faster next time

Question 3

Based on the exhibit, users report that the new payment portal opens only after they bypass a browser warning. Which remediation best restores secure access without weakening certificate validation?

Accepted Answer

Reissue the server certificate so the subject or SAN matches pay.example.net and chain it to the trusted CA.. The browser warning indicates a hostname mismatch or untrusted CA. Reissuing the server certificate with the correct subject or SAN (Subject Alternative Name) matching pay.example.net and chaining it to a trusted CA resolves the warning while maintaining full certificate validation. This ensures the browser can verify both the identity and trustworthiness of the server without weakening security.

Answer

Install the same certificate on every client so the browser warning is suppressed.

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Disable certificate name checking in the browser until the certificate expires.

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Replace TLS with a shared symmetric key configured on the web server and all users.

Question 4

A security analyst receives an alert about a user account attempting to access multiple network shares in rapid succession within a short time frame. The analyst reviews the logs and sees that the IP address originates from the internal network, but the user is currently on leave. Which type of attack is most likely occurring?

Accepted Answer

Internal reconnaissance. The behavior—an internal IP address rapidly querying multiple network shares—is characteristic of internal reconnaissance, where an attacker who has already gained a foothold maps out available resources. The user being on leave indicates the account is compromised, and the rapid succession of share access attempts is a classic sign of automated enumeration (e.g., using `net view` or SMB queries) rather than a direct credential attack.

Answer

Pass-the-hash attack

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Brute-force attack

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Credential stuffing attack

Question 5

A security analyst notices a sudden increase in outbound traffic from a database server that normally only communicates with internal application servers. The server is running a standard OS with no recent changes. Which of the following actions should the analyst take FIRST to determine if the server is compromised?

Accepted Answer

Check the server's running processes for unknown executables.. Checking the server's running processes for unknown executables is the first and most direct step to identify if an attacker has established a foothold. A sudden outbound traffic spike without recent configuration changes strongly suggests a malicious process (e.g., a reverse shell or data exfiltration tool) is running. Examining running processes allows the analyst to spot suspicious executables or command-line arguments before taking more disruptive actions like blocking traffic or running a scan.

Answer

Run a full antivirus scan on the server.

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Block all outbound traffic from the server at the firewall.

Answer

Review the server's event logs for failed login attempts.

Question 6

After a switch reboot in a conference room, several laptops obtain valid IP addresses in the correct subnet, but their default gateway changes to 10.20.40.50, which is not the legitimate router. Packet capture shows DHCP offers coming from a MAC address that does not belong to the approved DHCP server, and the rogue device responds faster than the real server. What attack is most likely occurring?

Accepted Answer

Rogue DHCP service, because an unauthorized DHCP server is handing out network settings.. The scenario describes an unauthorized device responding to DHCP discovery messages faster than the legitimate server, assigning valid IPs but a rogue default gateway (10.20.40.50). This is the classic behavior of a rogue DHCP server, which intercepts DHCP traffic to manipulate client network settings, enabling man-in-the-middle attacks. The packet capture confirming DHCP offers from an unknown MAC address directly identifies the attack as a Rogue DHCP service.

Answer

ARP poisoning, because the attacker is changing IP-to-MAC mappings on the local network.

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Replay attack, because the attacker is reusing old DHCP offers.

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DNS poisoning, because the clients are being sent to the wrong network path.

Question 7

A security analyst notices repeated failed login attempts to a critical database server from a single external IP address over the past hour. The analyst reviews the authentication logs and sees that the account name used in each attempt is 'admin'. Which of the following security controls should the analyst recommend to mitigate this type of attack with minimal impact on legitimate users?

Accepted Answer

Implement a temporary block rule on the perimeter firewall for the source IP address.. Implementing a temporary block rule on the perimeter firewall for the source IP address directly stops the attack at the network boundary, preventing further authentication attempts without affecting legitimate users who are not using that IP. This approach is a form of dynamic IP blocking, which is a common mitigation for brute-force attacks targeting a single account from a specific external source.

Answer

Configure an account lockout policy to lock the 'admin' account after three failed attempts.

Answer

Disable the 'admin' account until the source IP can be investigated.

Answer

Require multi-factor authentication on the 'admin' account for all remote logins.

Question 8

An investigator receives a suspect laptop drive that may be used in court. Which approach best supports a forensically sound image while protecting the original media?

Accepted Answer

Use a hardware write blocker and create a bit-by-bit forensic image with hashes.. Forensic best practice requires preserving the original media in an unaltered state. A hardware write blocker physically prevents any write commands from reaching the drive, ensuring the original evidence is not modified. Creating a bit-by-bit forensic image (e.g., with `dd` or FTK Imager) captures the entire drive, including slack space and unallocated sectors, and generating cryptographic hashes (SHA-256 or MD5) before and after imaging verifies the image's integrity for court admissibility.

Answer

Mount the drive read-write so the investigator can browse it quickly.

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Copy only the user profile folders with a file manager to save time.

Answer

Boot the laptop normally and use backup software to duplicate the disk.

Question 9

A SOC analyst sees repeated encoded PowerShell launched by mshta.exe. No new executable is written to disk, but the host makes periodic outbound connections to the same IP. Which malware characteristic is most likely?

Accepted Answer

Fileless attack, because the malicious activity lives in memory and uses built-in tools.. The scenario describes encoded PowerShell commands executed by mshta.exe without writing a new executable to disk, which is a classic fileless attack technique. Fileless malware operates entirely in memory, leveraging legitimate system tools (like PowerShell and mshta) to evade traditional antivirus detection, and the outbound connections are for command-and-control (C2) communication, not for self-propagation or data theft.

Answer

Worm, because the host is making outbound connections to a remote system.

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Spyware, because the host is communicating with an external IP address.

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Rootkit, because the system tools are being hidden from the user.

Question 10

A project team identifies a new risk with a high likelihood of minor data exposure during a pilot rollout. The impact is low, but the issue would become harder to address after production launch. The business owner wants the project to proceed. What should the risk owner do NEXT?

Accepted Answer

Document the risk, assign an owner, and escalate for acceptance or treatment before launch.. The risk owner must follow the formal risk management process: document the risk, assign an owner, and escalate it to the business owner for a decision on acceptance or treatment before the pilot launch. Even though the impact is low, the high likelihood and the fact that the issue becomes harder to address post-production mean the risk cannot be ignored or deferred; it requires a documented acceptance or a mitigation plan before proceeding.

Answer

Ignore the issue because the impact is low.

Answer

Wait until after production launch to see whether the issue actually occurs.

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Transfer the risk by moving the pilot to a different business unit.

Question 11

A security analyst receives an alert from the intrusion detection system (IDS) indicating a high volume of outbound traffic from a single internal workstation to an external IP address known to be associated with a command-and-control (C2) server. The workstation's user reports no unusual activity. Which of the following should the analyst do FIRST?

Accepted Answer

Disconnect the workstation from the network.. The IDS alert indicates a high volume of outbound traffic to a known C2 server, which strongly suggests the workstation is compromised and communicating with an attacker. Disconnecting the workstation from the network (Option A) is the immediate containment step to prevent data exfiltration and further C2 communication, following the NIST incident response framework's containment phase. This action stops the threat at the network layer without waiting for additional analysis.

Answer

Run a full antivirus scan on the workstation.

Answer

Review firewall logs to see if the traffic is being blocked.

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Inform the user to shut down the workstation.

Question 12

A project team must share a spreadsheet containing customer names, account numbers, and purchase history with an external auditor. The auditor only needs account numbers and totals. What is the best privacy control?

Accepted Answer

Redact unneeded personal data and transfer only the minimum necessary information through an approved encrypted channel. It applies the principle of data minimization and secure transmission. Redacting unneeded personal data (customer names) ensures only the minimum necessary information (account numbers and totals) is shared, reducing exposure. Transferring via an approved encrypted channel (e.g., SFTP, HTTPS, or encrypted email) protects data in transit from interception, which is required for compliance with regulations like GDPR or PCI DSS.

Answer

Send the full spreadsheet through regular email to avoid delaying the audit

Answer

Upload the spreadsheet to a public file-sharing site and protect it with a password

Answer

Compress the file with a password and reuse the same password for all auditors

Question 13

An HR analyst must send a compensation spreadsheet to an external auditor. The auditor only needs employee names, departments, and salary totals; Social Security numbers and bank account fields are not required. What should the analyst do before sharing the file?

Accepted Answer

Remove or redact the fields the auditor does not need, then share only the minimum necessary data.. The principle of data minimization requires sharing only the information necessary for the task. By removing or redacting the Social Security numbers and bank account fields, the analyst reduces the risk of exposing sensitive personally identifiable information (PII) to the external auditor, aligning with least privilege and need-to-know principles.

Answer

Encrypt the spreadsheet and send the full file as-is to preserve all records.

Answer

Store the file in a shared cloud folder and grant the auditor read-only access.

Answer

Convert the file to PDF so the sensitive information is harder to edit.

Question 14

A security manager wants every corporate laptop to use the same mandatory settings, including disk encryption, a 10-minute screen lock, and removal of local administrator rights. Which document should define these specific requirements?

Accepted Answer

Standard. A standard defines mandatory, specific technical requirements that must be uniformly applied across all systems, such as enforcing AES-256 disk encryption, a 600-second screen lock timeout, and removal of local administrator rights. Unlike a policy, which is high-level and goal-oriented, a standard provides the precise configuration settings that implement the policy's intent. This aligns with the CompTIA SY0-701 domain of Security Program Management and Oversight, where standards bridge the gap between policy and technical implementation.

Answer

Policy

Answer

Guideline

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Procedure

Question 15

An NDR tool shows a production web server sending small, periodic DNS queries to random-looking subdomains under a domain the company does not use. The pattern repeats every 60 seconds, even when normal web traffic is idle. What is the best interpretation and next step?

Accepted Answer

Suspect DNS-based command-and-control, then isolate the server and collect logs and packet data for analysis.. The small, periodic DNS queries to random-looking subdomains under an unused domain are a classic indicator of DNS-based command-and-control (C2) communication. Attackers often use DNS tunneling to exfiltrate data or send commands, as DNS traffic is typically allowed through firewalls. The fact that the pattern persists even during idle web traffic confirms it is not related to normal server operations, making isolation and forensic collection the appropriate next step.

Answer

This is normal DNS behavior, so no action is needed unless users report an outage.

Answer

Rotate the DNS server’s administrator password and leave the web server online.

Answer

Assume the web server is performing routine certificate renewal checks and ignore the alert.

Question 16

A security analyst is reviewing web server logs from an e-commerce application. The logs show repeated requests containing URLs with appended strings such as: `' OR '1'='1' --` and `'; DROP TABLE Users; --`. The application returned HTTP 200 responses with unexpected data in several instances. Which type of attack is most likely being attempted?

Accepted Answer

SQL injection. The repeated requests contain classic SQL injection payloads, such as `' OR '1'='1' --` (used to bypass authentication or extract data) and `'; DROP TABLE Users; --` (used to delete database tables). The HTTP 200 responses with unexpected data confirm that the application is vulnerable to SQL injection, as the injected SQL code is being executed against the backend database. This attack targets the SQL database layer, not LDAP directories or operating system commands.

Answer

LDAP injection

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Command injection

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Cross-site scripting (XSS)

Question 17

A defense contractor is deploying a new document management system that will store classified military intelligence. The security policy requires that user access to each document is strictly determined by the document's classification label (e.g., Confidential, Secret, Top Secret) and the user's verified security clearance level. Furthermore, system administrators must not be able to change these access rules or grant themselves access to documents above their clearance. Which access control model is best suited for this requirement?

Accepted Answer

Mandatory Access Control (MAC). Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is the correct choice because it enforces access decisions based on security labels (e.g., classification levels) and user clearances, which are centrally managed and cannot be overridden by users or administrators. In this scenario, the system must strictly enforce that a user's clearance level matches or exceeds the document's classification label, and administrators cannot modify these rules or elevate their own access—a core property of MAC systems like SELinux or those implementing Bell-LaPadula.

Answer

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

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Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

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Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

Question 18

A public-facing file transfer server is running an appliance firmware version that is now end-of-life. The vendor has stated that no further security patches will be released. Management wants the best long-term fix before the next audit. What should be done?

Accepted Answer

Replace or upgrade the end-of-life firmware with a supported version.. Running end-of-life firmware means no security patches will be released, leaving the server vulnerable to known exploits. The best long-term fix is to replace or upgrade to a supported firmware version that receives ongoing security updates, ensuring the system remains secure for the next audit and beyond.

Answer

Increase logging and keep the current firmware until a problem appears.

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Move the server to a different subnet and continue using the same firmware.

Answer

Change the administrator password and leave the device in place.

Question 19

A security analyst is reviewing the source code of a custom network service written in C. The service allocates a 256-byte buffer and uses the strcpy() function to copy incoming data into that buffer without verifying the length of the input. If an attacker sends a specially crafted payload that exceeds 256 bytes, which security control would be most effective at detecting and preventing the resulting exploitation at runtime?

Accepted Answer

Stack canaries. Stack canaries are the most effective runtime control for detecting and preventing buffer overflow exploitation. When a buffer overflow overwrites the stack, it corrupts a canary value placed between the buffer and the return address; before the function returns, the canary is checked, and if altered, the program terminates immediately, preventing arbitrary code execution.

Answer

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

Answer

Code signing

Answer

Data Execution Prevention (DEP)

Question 20

After an internal PKI was rebuilt, users now see certificate warnings when connecting to the company intranet portal. The portal certificate chains to a new CA, but endpoint trust stores do not recognize it yet. What should the administrator deploy?

Accepted Answer

The root CA certificate for the new PKI to trusted endpoint stores.. The root CA certificate must be distributed to all endpoint trust stores to establish trust in the new PKI. Without the root CA in the trusted root certification authorities store, the certificate chain is incomplete, causing browsers to display certificate warnings. Deploying the root CA certificate via Group Policy or MDM resolves this by allowing endpoints to validate the portal's certificate chain.

Answer

The portal's private key so users can validate the certificate locally.

Answer

A new certificate signing request on each endpoint.

Answer

A self-signed certificate on the portal to avoid future CA problems.