SC-900 Practice Questions 2 — 50 Questions

Question 1

Which THREE are features of Microsoft Purview Data Lifecycle Management (formerly Records Management)? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Retention policies. Retention policies are a core feature of Microsoft Purview Data Lifecycle Management because they allow administrators to apply retention settings at the container level (e.g., entire SharePoint site, Exchange mailbox, or OneDrive account) to automatically retain or delete content based on a defined schedule. This ensures that organizational data is kept for the required period and then removed, supporting compliance and governance requirements without manual intervention.

Answer

Data loss prevention

Answer

Sensitivity labels

Question 2

Which THREE actions can be performed by Microsoft Purview Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies?

Accepted Answer

Send notification to users. Microsoft Purview DLP policies can send email notifications to users when a policy match occurs, alerting them to potential policy violations and providing guidance on proper data handling. This is a core end-user notification feature that helps educate users and reduce accidental data leaks.

Answer

Create audit reports of policy matches

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Automatically delete files containing sensitive data

Question 3

Your company wants to use Microsoft Entra ID to provide single sign-on (SSO) to a SaaS application that supports SAML 2.0. What should you configure in Microsoft Entra ID?

Accepted Answer

Add the application from the Microsoft Entra ID Gallery in Enterprise applications. Adding the SaaS application from the Microsoft Entra ID Gallery in Enterprise applications is the standard method to configure SAML 2.0-based single sign-on (SSO). The gallery provides pre-integrated templates that include the necessary SAML endpoints, certificates, and attribute mappings, enabling seamless federation between Entra ID and the external application.

Answer

Enable Microsoft Entra ID Domain Services

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Configure Microsoft Entra ID Governance

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Register the application in App registrations

Question 4

Your company wants to use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect security threats from on-premises Active Directory. What is a prerequisite for deploying Defender for Identity?

Accepted Answer

Install a sensor on a domain controller. Microsoft Defender for Identity requires a sensor installed on a domain controller to capture and analyze on-premises Active Directory traffic, including authentication events and Kerberos requests. Without this sensor, Defender for Identity cannot monitor AD activities or detect threats like pass-the-hash or Golden Ticket attacks.

Answer

Obtain Microsoft 365 E3 licenses

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Install a sensor on each user's workstation

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Configure Azure AD Connect

Question 5

The exhibit shows a Conditional Access policy named 'Block Legacy Auth'. The admin notices that the policy is not blocking legacy authentication as intended. Based on the output, what is the most likely reason?

Accepted Answer

The policy does not have any client app types configured to block.. The policy is not blocking legacy authentication because it lacks configured client app types. Conditional Access policies require explicit selection of client apps (e.g., Exchange ActiveSync, other clients) to target legacy authentication protocols like POP3, IMAP, and SMTP. Without this configuration, the policy has no conditions to enforce, so it cannot block any authentication attempts.

Answer

The policy name is incorrect.

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The policy is assigned to no users.

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The policy is disabled.

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit. A Microsoft Graph PowerShell script is shown. What is the purpose of this script?

Accepted Answer

Register a phone authentication method for users.. The script uses the `New-MgUserAuthenticationPhoneMethod` cmdlet to register a phone number as an authentication method for a user in Microsoft Entra ID. This cmdlet specifically creates a phone authentication method, which can be used for multifactor authentication or self-service password reset, but its direct purpose is to register the phone method itself.

Answer

Configure self-service password reset settings.

Answer

Reset passwords for all users named John.

Answer

Enable multifactor authentication for the users.

Question 7

Your organization has multiple on-premises directories and wants to synchronize them to Microsoft Entra ID. However, you must avoid duplicate user objects. Which feature should you configure?

Accepted Answer

Source anchor attribute. The source anchor attribute (often the objectGUID in on-premises directories) is used during synchronization to uniquely identify each object and prevent duplicates. By mapping each on-premises object to a single, immutable source anchor, Microsoft Entra Connect ensures that even if multiple directories contain the same user, only one corresponding object is created in Entra ID.

Answer

Password Hash Sync

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Pass-through Authentication

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Active Directory Federation Services

Question 8

A legal team is involved in a lawsuit and needs to ensure that all emails and documents related to the case are preserved in their original state, even if users edit or delete them. They also need the ability to search for these items and export them for legal review. Which Microsoft Purview solution should the compliance team configure to meet these requirements?

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Purview eDiscovery (Standard). Microsoft Purview eDiscovery (Standard) is the correct solution because it provides the ability to place a legal hold on content (preserving emails and documents in their original state even if users edit or delete them), perform searches across Exchange Online, SharePoint Online, OneDrive for Business, and Teams, and export the results for legal review. This directly meets the requirements of preservation, search, and export for litigation.

Answer

Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager

Answer

Microsoft Purview Data Lifecycle Management

Answer

Microsoft Purview Audit (Standard)

Question 9

Which TWO Microsoft Purview features can be used to classify and label sensitive data in Microsoft 365?

Accepted Answer

Auto-labeling policies. Auto-labeling policies (A) are correct because they allow organizations to automatically apply sensitivity labels to data based on conditions such as sensitive information types or pattern matching, enabling classification and labeling without manual user intervention. Sensitivity labels (D) are correct because they are the core mechanism in Microsoft Purview for classifying and protecting sensitive data by applying persistent labels that can enforce encryption, access restrictions, and visual markings across Microsoft 365 services.

Answer

Data Loss Prevention policies

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Retention policies

Answer

Audit policies

Question 10

You are viewing an application registration in Microsoft Entra ID. What can you conclude about this app?

Accepted Answer

The app is a single-tenant application that is enabled but has no app roles defined. The application registration shows 'App roles' with a value of 0, which means no app roles are defined. The 'Supported account types' setting indicates 'Accounts in this organizational directory only', confirming it is a single-tenant application. The 'Enabled for users to sign-in?' toggle is set to 'Yes', so the app is enabled and can be used.

Answer

The app is disabled and cannot be used

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The app has custom roles for role-based access

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The app is multi-tenant and can be used by other tenants

Question 11

Your company uses Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. You need to configure attack surface reduction (ASR) rules. Which TWO of the following are ASR rules?

Accepted Answer

Block executable content from email client and webmail. ASR rules are designed to block common attack vectors by controlling specific behaviors. 'Block executable content from email client and webmail' prevents malicious scripts or executables from running when delivered via email, which is a primary infection vector. Option E is correct because 'Block Office applications from creating child processes' stops attackers from using Office apps (like Word or Excel) to spawn malicious processes (e.g., PowerShell or cmd.exe), a classic technique for code execution.

Answer

Allow only signed executables

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Block inbound connections from the internet

Answer

Block untrusted fonts

Question 12

Which TWO Microsoft Entra features can be used together to enforce risk-based conditional access?

Accepted Answer

Conditional Access. Conditional Access (B) is correct because it is the policy engine that enforces access decisions based on signals, including risk levels. Identity Protection (C) is correct because it detects and calculates user and sign-in risk in real time using machine learning. Together, Identity Protection provides the risk assessment, and Conditional Access enforces the policy (e.g., block or require MFA) based on that risk.

Answer

Entra Verified ID

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Self-Service Password Reset

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Privileged Identity Management

Question 13

Which two scenarios are examples of using Microsoft Entra business-to-business (B2B) collaboration? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A user from a partner organization is invited to access a SharePoint Online site.. Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration allows you to invite external users from partner organizations to access your company's resources, such as a SharePoint Online site. The invited user authenticates using their own home tenant credentials, and a B2B guest user object is created in your directory to represent them.

Answer

An employee uses their Microsoft Entra ID to sign in to a third-party SaaS application.

Answer

Two internal departments share resources within the same tenant.

Answer

Customers use their Facebook accounts to sign in to a company's web application.

Question 14

Which THREE Microsoft Defender XDR components are included in the unified security operations platform? (Select three.)

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Defender for Office 365. Microsoft Defender XDR (Extended Detection and Response) unifies signals from across the Microsoft 365 Defender portal. Microsoft Defender for Office 365 is a core component because it protects email, SharePoint, OneDrive, and Teams from threats like phishing and malware, and its alerts feed directly into the unified XDR incident queue. This integration allows cross-domain correlation with endpoint, identity, and cloud app signals.

Answer

Microsoft Defender for Cloud

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Microsoft Defender for IoT

Question 15

Your organization is implementing Microsoft Purview to govern data across Microsoft 365 and Azure. Which TWO capabilities should you use to discover and classify sensitive data?

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Purview Information Protection. Microsoft Purview Information Protection (A) enables you to discover, classify, and protect sensitive data by applying sensitivity labels and analyzing content via data loss prevention (DLP) policies. Microsoft Purview Data Map (B) provides automated scanning and classification of data assets across Azure and Microsoft 365, building a unified map of sensitive data locations. Together, they fulfill the discovery and classification requirements.

Answer

Microsoft Purview eDiscovery

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Microsoft Purview Audit

Answer

Microsoft Purview Data Lifecycle Management

Question 16

Which THREE of the following are capabilities provided by Microsoft Entra ID Protection? (Select three.)

Accepted Answer

Automated investigation and remediation of identity risks. Microsoft Entra ID Protection includes automated investigation and remediation capabilities that respond to detected identity risks. When a risk is identified, such as a compromised user account, the service can automatically trigger actions like requiring a password reset or blocking sign-in attempts, reducing the need for manual intervention.

Answer

Passwordless authentication options

Answer

Device compliance assessment

Question 17

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst is reviewing a Microsoft Defender XDR alert. Which two tactics identified are most relevant? (This is a multiple-choice question asking which two tactics are shown, but the format is single answer. We need to adjust: The question asks: 'Which two tactics are identified?' The correct answer is the option listing both 'InitialAccess and LateralMovement'.)

Accepted Answer

InitialAccess and LateralMovement. The exhibit shows a Microsoft Defender XDR alert indicating that an attacker gained initial access (e.g., via a phishing link or compromised credential) and then moved laterally within the network (e.g., using remote desktop or SMB). These two stages correspond directly to the InitialAccess and LateralMovement tactics in the MITRE ATT&CK framework, which are the most relevant based on the alert details.

Answer

LateralMovement and PrivilegeEscalation

Answer

LateralMovement and Exfiltration

Answer

InitialAccess and Persistence

Question 18

A healthcare organization is implementing Microsoft Purview Data Lifecycle Management to retain medical records for 7 years. Which THREE components must be configured to achieve this retention requirement?

Accepted Answer

Create a retention label policy to publish the label.. A retention label policy is required to publish the retention label so that it can be automatically or manually applied to the medical records. Without publishing the label via a policy, the label itself cannot be assigned to content, and the retention period will not take effect.

Answer

Apply a sensitivity label to classify the records.

Answer

Implement Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies to prevent data exfiltration.

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit. You run a KQL query in Microsoft Sentinel to investigate ransomware alerts. The query returns: AlertSeverity High: 5, Medium: 3, Low: 2. The security team wants to automate a response for all high-severity ransomware alerts. What should you configure?

Accepted Answer

Create an automation rule that triggers a playbook for high-severity ransomware incidents. Microsoft Sentinel automation rules allow you to define automated responses triggered when incidents are created or updated. By configuring an automation rule with a condition that checks for 'AlertSeverity' equal to 'High' and 'Ransomware' as the related alert, you can invoke a playbook to automatically respond to high-severity ransomware incidents, such as isolating affected machines or blocking indicators of compromise.

Answer

Create an analytics rule for ransomware

Answer

Create a hunting query for ransomware

Answer

Create a workbook to display ransomware alerts

Question 20

A financial services organization must prevent employees in the Research department from communicating via email or Microsoft Teams with employees in the Investment Banking department to avoid conflicts of interest. Additionally, they need to prevent any credit card numbers from being shared in emails sent to external recipients. Which combination of Microsoft Purview solutions should they implement?

Accepted Answer

Information Barriers and Data Loss Prevention. Information Barriers are designed to prevent communication and collaboration between specific groups to avoid conflicts of interest (e.g., research vs. investment banking). Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies detect and protect sensitive information such as credit card numbers from being shared externally. Communication Compliance focuses on monitoring communications for regulatory compliance but does not block communications, and Insider Risk Management analyzes risky user activities but does not enforce segmentation.

Answer

Communication Compliance and Insider Risk Management

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Information Barriers and Communication Compliance

Answer

Data Lifecycle Management and Data Loss Prevention