PK0-005 Project Life Cycle Practice Test 9 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A project manager is in the process of developing the project charter. Which of the following would be included in the project charter?

Accepted Answer

High-level project objectives and constraints. The project charter is a high-level document that formally authorizes the project and gives the project manager authority to proceed. It contains the project purpose, measurable objectives, high-level requirements, assumptions, constraints, and a summary budget and milestone schedule. High-level objectives and constraints are core charter elements because they define what success looks like and the boundaries within which the project must operate.

Answer

Earned value metrics

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Risk register with probability and impact matrix

Answer

Detailed work breakdown structure

Question 2

During project planning, the project manager decomposes the project scope into smaller, more manageable components. What is the resulting document called?

Accepted Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS). The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work required to complete the project. It breaks the project into smaller, more manageable components called work packages, which can be estimated, scheduled, and assigned.

Answer

Scope statement

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Project charter

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Network diagram

Question 3

In a precedence diagramming method (PDM) network, a successor activity cannot start until its predecessor activity has started. Which type of dependency does this represent?

Accepted Answer

Start-to-start (SS). A Start-to-Start (SS) dependency means the successor activity cannot begin until the predecessor has started. This is the definition given in the question — the successor's start is gated by the predecessor's start, not its finish. SS is commonly used when two activities must run in parallel with a lead/lag relationship.

Answer

Start-to-finish (SF)

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Finish-to-finish (FF)

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Finish-to-start (FS)

Question 4

A project has a critical path duration of 45 days. Activity X on the critical path has an optimistic duration of 5 days, a pessimistic duration of 13 days, and a most likely duration of 8 days. What is the expected duration of activity X using PERT?

Accepted Answer

8.33 days. PERT uses the weighted average formula Expected = (Optimistic + 4 × Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6. Plugging in O=5, M=8, P=13 gives (5 + 32 + 13) / 6 = 50 / 6 ≈ 8.33 days. This beta-distribution weighting emphasizes the most likely value while accounting for uncertainty.

Answer

8.0 days

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7.5 days

Answer

9.0 days

Question 5

Which of the following is a common response strategy for negative risks (threats) that involves reducing the probability or impact of the risk?

Accepted Answer

Mitigate. Mitigate is the correct answer because risk mitigation is the specific strategy that focuses on reducing either the probability of a threat occurring or the impact if it does occur. In project risk management (as defined in PMBOK), mitigation is a proactive approach that takes action before the risk event happens to lower its exposure. For example, implementing additional testing reduces the probability of defects, while adding redundancy reduces the impact of a failure.

Answer

Accept

Answer

Transfer

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Avoid

Question 6

A project manager has identified a stakeholder with high power and high interest. According to the power/interest grid, how should this stakeholder be managed?

Accepted Answer

Manage closely. In the power/interest grid, stakeholders with both high power and high interest are the most critical group because they can significantly influence the project and care deeply about its outcomes. The recommended strategy is to 'manage closely,' which means engaging them frequently, involving them in decision-making, and providing detailed, timely communication. This ensures their concerns are addressed and their influence is leveraged positively.

Answer

Monitor

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Keep informed

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Keep satisfied

Question 7

During project execution, the project team is experiencing conflicts and questioning the project manager's authority. According to Tuckman's model, which stage is the team in?

Accepted Answer

Storming. In Tuckman's model, the Storming stage is characterized by conflict, competition for roles, and challenges to authority. Team members may question the project manager's decisions and struggle with unclear roles, which matches the scenario described. This stage is a natural part of team development before norms are established.

Answer

Norming

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Performing

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Forming

Question 8

A project manager is estimating costs for a new project using a top-down approach based on historical data from a similar project. Which estimation technique is being used?

Accepted Answer

Analogous estimation. Analogous estimation uses historical data from a similar past project to estimate the current project's cost or duration, typically at a high level (top-down). Because the question specifies a top-down approach based on historical data from a similar project, analogous estimation is the exact match. It is fast and useful early when detailed information is scarce, though less precise than bottom-up methods.

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Three-point estimation

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Bottom-up estimation

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Parametric estimation

Question 9

In earned value management, the project has an EV of $50,000, PV of $60,000, and AC of $55,000. What is the cost variance (CV)?

Accepted Answer

-$5,000. Cost Variance (CV) is calculated as EV − AC. With EV = $50,000 and AC = $55,000, CV = $50,000 − $55,000 = −$5,000, indicating the project is over budget by $5,000.

Answer

-$10,000

Answer

$10,000

Answer

$5,000

Question 10

A project manager receives a change request from a stakeholder. What is the first step the project manager should take?

Accepted Answer

Perform an impact analysis. The first step after receiving a change request is to perform an impact analysis. This involves assessing how the change will affect scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk, and resources. Only after understanding the impact can the project manager decide whether to submit the change to the change control board (CCB) for approval. Implementing immediately or updating the baseline without analysis would violate change management best practices.

Answer

Submit the change to the change control board

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Implement the change immediately

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Update the project baseline

Question 11

A project has a budget at completion (BAC) of $200,000. The earned value (EV) is $120,000, and the actual cost (AC) is $150,000. What is the estimate to complete (ETC) assuming the project will continue to perform at the same cost efficiency?

Accepted Answer

$100,000. ETC = (BAC − EV) / CPI. Here CPI = EV/AC = 120,000/150,000 = 0.8. Remaining work = BAC − EV = 200,000 − 120,000 = 80,000. ETC = 80,000 / 0.8 = $100,000. This assumes the project continues at the same cost efficiency (CPI remains 0.8).

Answer

$80,000

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$150,000

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$120,000

Question 12

Which type of contract places the greatest cost risk on the seller?

Accepted Answer

Fixed-price contract. A fixed-price contract places the greatest cost risk on the seller because the seller agrees to deliver the specified scope for a set price, regardless of actual costs incurred. If the seller's costs exceed the agreed price, the seller absorbs the loss. This is in contrast to cost-reimbursable contracts, where the buyer bears the cost risk.

Answer

Cost plus incentive fee

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Time and materials contract

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Cost-reimbursable contract

Question 13

Which TWO documents are typically created during the project initiating phase?

Accepted Answer

Stakeholder register. The project initiating phase produces the documents that formally authorize the project and begin identifying the people involved. Option C, the project charter, is correct because it is the document that formally authorizes the existence of the project and gives the project manager authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. Option A, the stakeholder register, is correct because stakeholder identification is performed during initiating, and the stakeholder register is the output that records identified stakeholders and relevant information about them. Option B, the status report, is not part of initiating; status reports are created during project execution and monitoring/controlling to communicate progress. Option D, the work breakdown structure, is not part of initiating; the WBS is created during project planning as part of scope management. Option E, the risk register, is not part of initiating; it is an output of the risk management processes performed during planning.

Answer

Status report

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Work breakdown structure

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Risk register

Question 14

During project closing, which THREE activities should be performed?

Accepted Answer

Obtain formal acceptance from the sponsor. Option A is correct because project closing requires obtaining formal acceptance (sign-off) from the sponsor or customer to confirm that deliverables meet requirements and the project is officially complete. Option C is correct because archiving project documents preserves the project records, contracts, and artifacts for future reference, audits, and organizational knowledge. Option D is correct because conducting lessons learned captures what went well and what could be improved, feeding the organizational process assets for future projects. Option B is incorrect because resource leveling is a schedule development technique used during planning and execution, not closing. Option E is incorrect because risk identification is part of risk management planning and monitoring, which occurs throughout the project but is not a closing activity.

Answer

Perform resource leveling

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Identify risks

Question 15

A project manager is evaluating the cost performance of a project. Which TWO earned value metrics should be used to determine if the project is over budget?

Accepted Answer

Cost variance (CV). Cost variance (CV), option D, is the correct metric because it is calculated as EV minus AC and directly shows whether the project is over or under budget: a negative CV means the project is over budget. Cost performance index (CPI), option E, is also correct because it is calculated as EV divided by AC, and a CPI below 1.0 indicates the project is getting less value per dollar spent, i.e., over budget. By contrast, schedule variance (SV, option A) and schedule performance index (SPI, option C) measure schedule performance in terms of earned value versus planned value, not cost overruns. Estimate at completion (EAC, option B) forecasts the total expected cost at completion but does not by itself determine whether the project is currently over budget.

Answer

Schedule variance (SV)

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Estimate at completion (EAC)

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Schedule performance index (SPI)