PK0-005 Practice Exam 58 — 20 Questions

Question 1

During project execution, a team member reports that a key deliverable will be delayed because a required component is out of stock. The project manager updates the issue log and meets with the team to evaluate alternatives. Which project management process is being performed?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

Direct and Manage Project Work. The scenario describes the project manager updating the issue log and meeting with the team to evaluate alternatives for a delayed deliverable. This is the core of the 'Direct and Manage Project Work' process, which involves executing the project management plan, performing activities to produce deliverables, and managing issues as they arise. The PM is actively directing the work by addressing the issue and exploring options, not yet controlling or changing baselines.

Answer

Close Project or Phase

Answer

Perform Integrated Change Control

Answer

Monitor and Control Project Work

Question 2

Given EV = $80,000 and AC = $90,000, what is the project's cost performance index (CPI) and what does it indicate?

Accepted Answer

CPI = 0.89; the project is over budget. CPI = EV/AC = $80,000/$90,000 = 0.89. A CPI less than 1 indicates the project is over budget.

Answer

CPI = 0.89; the project is under budget

Answer

CPI = 1.11; the project is under budget

Answer

CPI = 0.80; the project is over budget

Question 3

A project manager is identifying stakeholders for a new product launch. She uses a power/interest grid to categorize stakeholders. For which ONE quadrant should the project manager apply the strategy of 'Manage Closely'?

Accepted Answer

High power, high interest. In the power/interest grid, the 'Manage Closely' strategy applies only to stakeholders with high power and high interest. Option C (High power, high interest) is correct. High power, low interest stakeholders (B) should be managed using the 'Keep Satisfied' strategy. Low power stakeholders (A, D, E) are managed with 'Keep Informed' or 'Monitor' strategies.

Answer

Medium power, medium interest

Answer

High power, low interest

Answer

Low power, low interest

Answer

Low power, high interest

Question 4

A project team is evaluating cloud providers for a SaaS application. The provider must guarantee 99.99% uptime and support data sovereignty requirements. Which service level agreement (SLA) clause is most critical to review?

Accepted Answer

Data residency and location clauses. The question explicitly requires the provider to support data sovereignty, which mandates that data must be stored and processed within specific geographic boundaries. The SLA clause on data residency and location clauses (Option D) directly addresses this by defining where data centers are located and whether data can be moved across borders. Without this clause, the provider could store data in jurisdictions violating legal or regulatory requirements, making it the most critical clause to review.

Answer

Data encryption standards

Answer

Financial penalty for downtime

Answer

Incident response and escalation procedure

Question 5

A project manager is developing a project charter. Which of the following is typically included in the project charter?

Accepted Answer

High-level project description and product description. The project charter is a high-level document that authorizes the project and provides a summary of its purpose and key elements. A high-level project description and product description are core components of the charter, as they define the project's scope and deliverables without going into execution-level detail.

Answer

Detailed work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer

Communication plan with stakeholder details

Answer

Risk register with identified risks and responses

Question 6

A project manager is reviewing the risk response plan for a critical project deliverable. Based on the exhibit, which issue exists with the current risk response setup?

Accepted Answer

The configured limit of 2 risks per category does not match the actual number of risks logged.. The exhibit shows a risk response plan with a configured limit of two active risk responses per category. However, the risk log displays three risks in one category, indicating that the limit is not being enforced correctly. This mismatch between the planned configuration and the actual tracking is the direct issue, making option D correct.

Answer

The risk response plan should include contingency reserves for each category.

Answer

The risk owner should be assigned for each risk, not for the response.

Answer

The risk response plan does not specify a trigger for each risk.

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the project status report, what is the cost variance (CV) and what does it indicate?

Accepted Answer

CV = -$15,000; over budget. The cost variance (CV) is calculated as earned value (EV) minus actual cost (AC). From the exhibit, EV = $25,000 and AC = $40,000, so CV = $25,000 - $40,000 = -$15,000. A negative CV indicates the project is over budget, meaning costs have exceeded the value of work performed.

Answer

CV = -$5,000; over budget

Answer

CV = -$10,000; over budget

Answer

CV = $5,000; under budget

Question 8

A project manager needs to document the process for submitting and approving change requests. Which document should the project manager create?

Accepted Answer

Change management plan. The change management plan is the correct document because it specifically defines the process for submitting, reviewing, approving, and tracking change requests. This plan outlines the roles, responsibilities, and procedures for managing changes to project baselines, ensuring that all modifications are controlled and documented.

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Lessons learned

Answer

Project charter

Question 9

A project is experiencing scope creep because stakeholders are requesting additional features without formal change control. What is the best course of action for the project manager to prevent this?

Accepted Answer

Implement a formal change control process and require approval for all changes.. Scope creep is best prevented by implementing a formal change control process that requires all changes to be reviewed and approved before integration. This ensures that every additional feature is evaluated for impact on scope, schedule, budget, and quality, aligning with the project management plan and preventing uncontrolled expansion of project deliverables.

Answer

Add the features and update the project schedule.

Answer

Reject all changes immediately.

Answer

Escalate to the project sponsor without discussion.

Question 10

A project manager is using a tool to track project tasks, dependencies, and resource assignments. The team needs to see the critical path and adjust schedules when tasks are delayed. Which tool should the project manager use?

Accepted Answer

Gantt chart. The Gantt chart is the correct tool because it visually displays project tasks, their dependencies, durations, and resource assignments along a timeline. It explicitly shows the critical path (the longest sequence of dependent tasks) and allows the project manager to adjust schedules dynamically when tasks are delayed, making it ideal for schedule management and impact analysis.

Answer

Pareto chart

Answer

RACI matrix

Answer

Kanban board

Question 11

During a server migration project, the team discovers that the new servers have a different CPU architecture than the old ones. The project manager must decide the best course of action. What should the project manager do first?

Accepted Answer

Assess the impact on existing applications and plan remediation. The project manager must first assess the impact of the CPU architecture change on existing applications because different instruction sets (e.g., x86 vs. ARM) can cause binary incompatibility, requiring recompilation or emulation. Proceeding without this analysis risks application failures, data corruption, or performance degradation. This aligns with the PMBOK risk management process of identifying and analyzing risks before planning a response.

Answer

Proceed with migration as planned, assuming compatibility

Answer

Revert to the original server architecture

Answer

Delay the project to retrain staff on the new architecture

Question 12

During a project kickoff meeting, the team identifies several potential risks. The project manager decides to document them in a structured format. Which project document should the project manager use to record and track these risks throughout the project?

Accepted Answer

Risk register. The risk register is the formal project document used to record identified risks, their analysis, planned responses, and status throughout the project lifecycle. In the PK0-005 context, it is the definitive tool for tracking risks from identification through closure, ensuring all risks are managed systematically.

Answer

Brainstorming

Answer

Nominal group technique

Answer

SWOT analysis

Question 13

A company is deploying a new web server. Which TWO security measures should the project manager include in the project plan? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Firewall rules. Firewall rules are essential for controlling inbound and outbound traffic to the web server, protecting it from unauthorized access and attacks. A TLS certificate enables HTTPS encryption, ensuring data confidentiality and integrity between clients and the server. Both are critical security measures that should be included in the project plan for a new web server deployment.

Answer

UPS

Answer

Load balancer

Answer

RAID array

Question 14

A project manager is leading a software development project. The client requests a feature change that will add two weeks to the schedule and increase costs by $10,000. The project manager evaluates the impact and presents options to the change control board. The board approves the change but the project sponsor expresses concern about the budget. What should the project manager do next?

Accepted Answer

Update the project management plan and baseline to reflect the change. The change control board (CCB) has approved the change, making it an authorized modification. The project manager must now update the project management plan and baseline to formally incorporate the approved change, ensuring the schedule and budget reflect the new scope. The sponsor's concern is noted but does not override the CCB's decision; the PM should address the concern through communication and reporting, not by halting the process.

Answer

Cancel the change until the sponsor is satisfied

Answer

Proceed with the original plan and ignore the sponsor's concern

Answer

Escalate the sponsor's concern to the change control board

Question 15

A project manager is analyzing quality control data and wants to identify whether process variation is due to special causes or common causes. Which TWO tools would be most helpful?

Accepted Answer

Run chart. Control charts (with UCL/LCL) distinguish between special and common cause variation. Run charts can also show trends but may not have control limits. Cause-and-effect diagrams identify root causes, Pareto charts prioritize, histograms show distribution but not special causes.

Answer

Histogram

Answer

Cause-and-effect diagram

Answer

Pareto chart

Question 16

A project is in the planning phase and the team is determining the sequence of activities. Which project life cycle phase follows planning?

Accepted Answer

Executing. The typical project life cycle phases are initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing. Executing follows planning.

Answer

Closing

Answer

Initiating

Answer

Monitoring and controlling

Question 17

Refer to the exhibit. What is the total float for Task D?

Accepted Answer

1 day. The critical path is Path 1 (14 days). Task D is on Path 2 with a duration of 13 days. Total float = critical path duration - non-critical path duration = 14 - 13 = 1 day.

Answer

0 days

Answer

2 days

Answer

3 days

Question 18

You are the project manager for a mid-sized company that provides an online customer portal. The portal is hosted on a single virtual machine (VM) in the company's on-premises data center with 4 vCPUs, 16 GB RAM, and a 500 GB HDD. The VM runs Windows Server 2019 and hosts both the web server (IIS) and the database (SQL Server Express). Users have been reporting slow performance, especially during peak hours (10 AM - 2 PM). The system administrator notes that CPU usage spikes to 95% during those times, and disk I/O latency averages 50 ms. The company's budget is limited, and they want a cost-effective solution that can be implemented within two weeks. The project sponsor suggests migrating to the cloud, but the IT director is concerned about security and compliance. The company has no existing cloud infrastructure or virtual private network (VPN) to the cloud. You need to propose a solution that improves performance without incurring high costs or long delays. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Accepted Answer

Create two separate VMs: one for the web server with 2 vCPUs and 8 GB RAM, and one for the database with 2 vCPUs and 8 GB RAM. Replace the HDD with an SSD on both VMs.. Separating the web server and database onto two VMs eliminates resource contention between IIS and SQL Server Express, which is the root cause of the CPU and I/O spikes. Replacing the HDD with SSDs reduces disk I/O latency from 50 ms to under 1 ms, directly addressing the performance bottleneck. This solution is cost-effective and can be implemented within two weeks using existing on-premises hardware, without requiring cloud migration or VPN setup.

Answer

Migrate the entire portal to a public cloud provider using a lift-and-shift approach, and set up a VPN connection for security.

Answer

Upgrade the existing VM by adding more RAM and using a faster HDD with a larger cache.

Answer

Implement IIS compression and enable SQL Server data compression to reduce CPU and I/O load.

Question 19

A project manager is working on a software development project. The team has identified a potential risk that could cause a two-week delay. The project manager decides to add extra resources to the critical path to reduce the impact. Which risk response strategy is being used?

Accepted Answer

Mitigate. Adding extra resources to the critical path to reduce the impact of a potential two-week delay is a classic example of the Mitigate risk response strategy. Mitigation aims to reduce the probability or impact of a risk, and here the project manager is proactively reducing the impact by increasing capacity on the critical path. This is not accepting the risk, avoiding it, or transferring it to a third party.

Answer

Accept

Answer

Avoid

Answer

Transfer

Question 20

During project execution, two team members disagree on who is responsible for a specific task, leading to delays. Which project document should the project manager consult to resolve this conflict?

Accepted Answer

RACI matrix. The RACI matrix (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) is the definitive project document for clarifying roles and responsibilities for specific tasks or deliverables. When team members disagree on task ownership, the project manager should consult the RACI matrix to identify who is designated as 'Responsible' for performing the work, thereby resolving the ambiguity and preventing further delays.

Answer

Issue log

Answer

Stakeholder register

Answer

Communication plan