PK0-005 Practice Exam 58 — 20 Questions

Question 1

A project manager is closing out a customer relationship management implementation. The sponsor asks which activities are part of the closing phase rather than the execution phase. (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Obtaining formal acceptance of the final deliverables from the customer. Closing centers on confirming the customer accepts the deliverables and on administrative closure such as releasing resources and capturing lessons learned. Monitoring the critical path, negotiating future contracts, and running daily stand-ups are executing or initiating activities. Recognizing the boundary between producing deliverables and formally ending the project is the key distinction the sponsor is asking about.

Answer

Monitoring the critical path and updating the schedule baseline weekly

Answer

Negotiating contract terms with the vendor for the next phase of work

Answer

Conducting daily stand-up meetings to remove team impediments

Question 2

A project manager is leading a project to implement a new enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. The project is in the executing phase. The project manager needs to ensure that the project team follows the approved processes and that the project remains on track. Which TWO of the following activities are part of the Monitoring and Controlling process group? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Controlling quality by monitoring specific project results.. The correct answers are the activities that are part of the Monitoring and Controlling process group: integrated change control and controlling quality. These processes focus on tracking, reviewing, and regulating project performance and ensuring that changes are managed properly. Developing the project management plan is in Planning, while acquiring the team and managing stakeholder engagement are in Executing.

Answer

Developing the project management plan.

Answer

Managing stakeholder engagement.

Answer

Acquiring the project team.

Question 3

A project manager is working on a project with a fixed-price contract. The customer requests a significant change that will increase the project scope and cost. The project manager documents the change and submits it to the change control board (CCB). Which of the following is the MOST likely outcome if the CCB approves the change?

Accepted Answer

The project manager will negotiate a contract amendment with the customer to adjust the price.. The correct answer is the option that recognizes the need for a contract amendment. In a fixed-price contract, any change in scope that affects cost requires a formal contract modification. The CCB approval is an internal control, but the customer must agree to the change and the associated price adjustment. The other options either ignore the contract or incorrectly assign the cost burden.

Answer

The project manager will absorb the additional cost to maintain the fixed price.

Answer

The project manager will update the project management plan without changing the contract.

Answer

The project manager will request additional funds from the project sponsor to cover the change.

Question 4

A project manager is updating the project charter and needs to document the measurable criteria that will be used to determine whether the project is successful, such as reducing processing time by 20% within six months. Which element of the project charter is the project manager defining?

Accepted Answer

Project objectives. Project objectives in the project charter state the measurable, time-bound goals that determine project success. A target like reducing processing time by 20% within six months is a classic objective because it is specific, quantifiable, and tied to a deadline. Documenting it in the charter aligns stakeholders on what success looks like and provides a basis for later evaluation.

Answer

Business case

Answer

High-level scope

Answer

Assumptions and constraints

Question 5

A project manager is leading a project to develop a new mobile application. The team is distributed across three time zones. The project manager needs to ensure that all team members have access to the latest project documents and can collaborate in real time. Which of the following tools is BEST suited for this purpose?

Accepted Answer

A cloud-based collaboration platform like Microsoft SharePoint or Google Workspace.. The correct answer is the cloud-based collaboration platform because it offers real-time co-authoring, version control, and communication tools accessible from anywhere. This directly addresses the need for a distributed team to collaborate simultaneously. Other options either lack real-time capabilities or are less efficient for collaboration. The platform also ensures all team members have access to the latest documents.

Answer

Email distribution lists for sending documents to all team members.

Answer

A project management information system (PMIS) with document repository.

Answer

A shared network drive with version control.

Question 6

A project manager is preparing a presentation for the steering committee. The PM wants to show the cumulative planned value, earned value, and actual cost over time to illustrate cost and schedule performance trends. Which tool or technique should the project manager use?

Accepted Answer

S-curve. An S-curve is the standard tool for displaying cumulative planned value, earned value, and actual cost over time. It allows stakeholders to see cost and schedule performance trends at a glance. The other charts serve different purposes: burndown for agile progress, Gantt for schedule, and control chart for quality. Therefore, the S-curve is the correct choice.

Answer

Gantt chart

Answer

Burndown chart

Answer

Control chart

Question 7

A project manager is preparing a presentation for the steering committee and wants to show the project's planned start and finish dates, key milestones, and major deliverables in a single high-level visual. Which tool should the project manager use?

Accepted Answer

Milestone chart. A milestone chart is designed for high-level schedule communication, showing key events, planned dates, and major deliverables on a timeline. It gives executives a concise view of progress and upcoming checkpoints without the granular detail of a full schedule. Other tools address scope decomposition, resource loading, or role clarity, not timeline visualization.

Answer

Resource histogram

Answer

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 8

A project manager is leading a project to implement a new Voice over IP (VoIP) system across multiple offices. The project manager needs to ensure the network infrastructure can support the VoIP traffic. Which TWO factors should the project manager verify? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Bandwidth capacity. QoS configuration and bandwidth capacity are critical to support VoIP traffic. QoS ensures voice packets are prioritized to minimize latency and jitter, while sufficient bandwidth prevents congestion that could degrade call quality. DHCP scope, SNMP community strings, and port security are important for other aspects but do not directly ensure the network can handle real-time voice traffic.

Answer

Network switch port security

Answer

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) scope

Answer

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) community strings

Question 9

A project manager is reviewing the risk register and notices a risk with a probability of 0.4 and an impact of $80,000. The project manager decides to purchase insurance to cover the potential loss. Which risk response strategy is being applied?

Accepted Answer

Transfer. Transfer is the correct risk response strategy because purchasing insurance shifts the financial consequences of the risk to a third party. The project manager retains the risk's probability but protects the project budget from the full impact. This is a common approach for risks with high financial impact, such as liability or property damage.

Answer

Avoid

Answer

Accept

Answer

Mitigate

Question 10

A project manager is using a Kanban board to manage workflow. The team wants to limit the amount of work in progress (WIP) to improve flow and reduce bottlenecks. Which metric should the project manager monitor to assess the effectiveness of the WIP limit?

Accepted Answer

Cycle time. Cycle time is the correct metric because it directly reflects how quickly work items move through the Kanban system. When WIP limits are effective, cycle time should decrease as bottlenecks are reduced and flow improves. Monitoring cycle time allows the project manager to validate the WIP limit and make data-driven adjustments to optimize the team's workflow.

Answer

Velocity

Answer

Throughput

Answer

Lead time

Question 11

A project manager is leading a software development project and needs to track the progress of tasks, identify critical path activities, and visualize dependencies. Which tool should the project manager use?

Accepted Answer

Gantt chart. A Gantt chart is the appropriate tool because it provides a visual timeline of tasks, their durations, dependencies, and the critical path. This enables the project manager to monitor progress, identify bottlenecks, and ensure the project stays on schedule, which are essential for managing a software development project with complex task relationships.

Answer

Burndown chart

Answer

RACI matrix

Answer

Pareto chart

Question 12

A project manager is reviewing a risk register and wants to document the specific actions that will be taken if a high-probability supplier failure occurs. Which component of the risk register should contain this information?

Accepted Answer

Risk response plan. The risk response plan is the risk register component that captures the actions to be executed if a risk materializes. It documents mitigation, contingency, and fallback steps along with ownership and timing. Other fields identify who owns the risk, how it is categorized, or what signals its occurrence, but only the response plan contains the specific actions for the supplier failure.

Answer

Risk owner

Answer

Risk trigger

Answer

Risk category

Question 13

A project manager is preparing for the Closing phase of a project that has been completed successfully. Which TWO activities are part of the Close Project or Phase process? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Obtain final acceptance of the project deliverables from the customer or sponsor.. The Close Project or Phase process includes obtaining final acceptance of deliverables, archiving project documents, capturing lessons learned, releasing resources, and finalizing financial and procurement closure. Developing the project management plan, identifying stakeholders, and estimating activity durations are all earlier-phase activities that do not belong in Closing. Final acceptance and lessons learned are specifically part of closure.

Answer

Identify stakeholders and analyze their interest and influence on the project.

Answer

Develop the project management plan and gain approval from the sponsor.

Answer

Estimate activity durations and develop the project schedule.

Question 14

During the Initiating phase of a construction project, the project manager learns that the sponsoring organization will not commit funding until the document that formally authorizes the project and names the project manager exists. Which document should the project manager produce?

Accepted Answer

Project charter. A project charter formally authorizes the project and designates the project manager with the authority to apply resources. The sponsoring organization's condition ties funding to that authorization, so the charter is the required deliverable in Initiating. The project management plan and WBS come later in Planning, while the business case justifies investment but does not authorize the project.

Answer

Work breakdown structure

Answer

Business case

Answer

Project management plan

Question 15

A project manager is overseeing the replacement of aging physical servers with a hyperconverged infrastructure (HCI) solution. During the planning phase, the project manager must identify a risk that could affect the project's ability to meet its schedule. Which action best demonstrates proactive risk management?

Accepted Answer

Documenting the risk in a risk register and assigning an owner.. Proactive risk management involves identifying risks early, documenting them in a risk register, assigning owners, and planning responses. For the HCI replacement, this allows the team to monitor triggers and act before schedule impacts occur. Waiting for risks to happen, relying only on contingency budget, or promising to handle issues later are reactive approaches that do not prevent or minimize schedule disruption.

Answer

Adding a contingency reserve to the project budget only.

Answer

Waiting until the risk occurs and then creating a change request.

Answer

Informing the sponsor that all risks will be handled if they occur.

Question 16

A project manager is executing a project and a team member reports that a purchased component does not meet the specifications stated in the procurement agreement. The project manager must document and pursue a remedy. Which TWO activities should the project manager perform? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Use the agreed inspection, quality, and acceptance criteria to verify the deliverable formally.. A defective seller deliverable is handled through contract administration: verify conformance against the agreed inspection and acceptance criteria, document the nonconformance, and pursue a formal claim or dispute notice under the procurement agreement. Audits and closure are separate processes, and unilateral termination is a disproportionate remedy that bypasses contractual dispute procedures.

Answer

Perform a procurement audit and update the lessons learned register with the audit findings.

Answer

Terminate the contract immediately and re-procure the component from a different seller.

Answer

Accept the component conditionally and close the procurement, then negotiate a credit later.

Question 17

A project manager is preparing a dashboard for executives. The executives want a single view that shows the project's overall health by combining schedule, cost, and scope performance indicators against thresholds. Which tool should the PM use to present this consolidated status?

Accepted Answer

Project dashboard with RAG status indicators. A project dashboard with RAG indicators consolidates schedule, cost, and scope metrics and compares them to predefined thresholds, which is exactly what executives need for a single health view. A balanced scorecard, Gantt chart, and burndown chart each address different reporting needs and cannot provide the integrated threshold-based status this scenario requires.

Answer

Burndown chart

Answer

Gantt chart

Answer

Balanced scorecard

Question 18

A project manager has been asked to lead a project that will replace a legacy payroll system. The vendor contract requires a firm completion date tied to a regulatory deadline, and the budget was approved at a fixed ceiling. During the first planning workshop, the sponsor asks the project manager to add a self-service reporting portal that was not part of the approved business case. What should the project manager do FIRST?

Accepted Answer

Submit the reporting portal request through the integrated change control process for impact analysis and approval.. Because the project runs against a regulatory completion date and an approved fixed budget, any new feature must be evaluated rather than absorbed or refused. Routing the reporting portal through integrated change control produces documented analysis of schedule, cost, scope, and risk impacts, and it gives the sponsor an informed approval decision. This keeps the baselines valid and the project manager accountable to the governance process.

Answer

Reject the request outright because the business case has already been approved and cannot be revisited.

Answer

Ask the team to build a quick prototype of the portal so the sponsor can decide whether the request is worth pursuing.

Answer

Add the reporting portal to the work breakdown structure and absorb the effort by compressing the schedule.

Question 19

A project manager is conducting a risk assessment for an IT infrastructure project that involves migrating critical applications to a new data center. The project manager needs to identify potential risks related to hardware failures, network outages, and data loss. Which TWO risk response strategies are most appropriate for addressing these technical risks? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Mitigate by implementing a robust backup and disaster recovery plan. The correct strategies are mitigation through redundant hardware and network paths, and mitigation through a robust backup and disaster recovery plan. Both reduce the probability or impact of technical risks like hardware failures, network outages, and data loss. Transfer and acceptance do not proactively address these risks, and avoidance would cancel the project, which is not feasible for a critical migration.

Answer

Transfer by purchasing insurance for data loss

Answer

Accept by documenting the risks and taking no action

Answer

Avoid by canceling the data center migration

Question 20

During the Planning phase, a project manager is building the work breakdown structure (WBS) for a construction project. Which TWO characteristics must the WBS satisfy? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Work packages are decomposed to a level where cost and duration can be reliably estimated.. A sound WBS follows the 100 percent rule and decomposes deliverables into work packages detailed enough for reliable estimating and control. Organizing by reporting structure, mandating vendor execution, or forcing one-day durations are not WBS requirements and would undermine the deliverable-oriented structure needed for scope management.

Answer

Every element is organized by the organizational reporting structure rather than by deliverable.

Answer

The WBS is decomposed until every activity has a duration of exactly one day.

Answer

Each work package is assigned to at least one external vendor for execution.