PK0-005 Practice Exam 57 — 20 Questions

Question 1

A project manager is overseeing a data center migration. The new infrastructure must support high availability and scalability. Which TWO components are essential for achieving these goals?

Accepted Answer

Load balancer. Option B (Load balancer) is correct because a load balancer distributes incoming traffic across multiple servers, eliminating a single point of failure at the application tier and enabling horizontal scaling by allowing additional servers to be added to the pool as demand grows. Option D (Redundant power supplies) is correct because dual/redundant PSUs (often connected to separate PDUs and UPS circuits) ensure that the failure of one power feed or supply does not take down a server, which is a foundational requirement for high availability in a data center. Option A (RAID 0) is incorrect because it provides striping for performance with no redundancy, so any single disk failure destroys the array, which is the opposite of high availability. Option C (IP addressing scheme) is incorrect because, while necessary for network communication, an addressing scheme by itself does not deliver high availability or scalability. Option E (Single point of failure) is incorrect because it is precisely what high-availability design must eliminate, not a component that achieves it.

Answer

RAID 0

Answer

IP addressing scheme

Answer

Single point of failure

Question 2

During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a new feature that was not included in the scope baseline. What should the project manager do first?

Accepted Answer

Submit a change request to the change control board. The correct first step when a new feature is requested outside the scope baseline is to submit a formal change request to the change control board (CCB). This initiates the integrated change control process, ensuring the request is evaluated for impact on cost, schedule, and quality before any action is taken. The project manager must follow the defined change management process rather than making unilateral decisions.

Answer

Deny the request because it is outside the original scope

Answer

Add the feature immediately to maintain stakeholder satisfaction

Answer

Ask the sponsor to make the decision

Question 3

Which TWO tools are commonly used for project scheduling and displaying task dependencies? (Select TWO)

Accepted Answer

Gantt chart. A Gantt chart is correct because it is a standard project scheduling tool that displays tasks as horizontal bars along a timeline, showing start and end dates, durations, and dependencies between activities. A network diagram is also correct because it visually maps tasks as nodes or arrows and explicitly shows the logical dependencies and sequencing (e.g., finish-to-start relationships) among project activities. The work breakdown structure is not a scheduling or dependency-display tool; it hierarchically decomposes project scope into deliverables and work packages. A change log records change requests and their status, and a risk register tracks identified risks, their probability, impact, and responses—neither is used to schedule tasks or display dependencies.

Answer

Work breakdown structure

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Change log

Answer

Risk register

Question 4

A project manager wants to analyze the project schedule to identify the longest path of dependent tasks. Which technique should be used?

Accepted Answer

Critical path method. The critical path method (CPM) is used to identify the longest sequence of dependent tasks in a project schedule, which determines the minimum project duration. By calculating early start, early finish, late start, and late finish for each task, CPM highlights the path with zero total float, meaning any delay on this path directly delays the project. This technique is specifically designed for analyzing task dependencies and durations to find the critical path.

Answer

PERT analysis

Answer

Gantt chart

Answer

Monte Carlo simulation

Question 5

Which TWO of the following are examples of project constraints? (Select TWO).

Accepted Answer

Cost. Cost (A) is a classic project constraint because it defines the approved budget within which the project must deliver, and any change to funding directly limits what the project can accomplish. Scope (E) is also a core constraint because it specifies exactly what work and deliverables are included, and expanding or reducing it affects time, cost, and resources. Together with time (the third leg of the triple constraint), cost and scope form the fundamental boundaries that project managers must balance. The other options do not belong: project manager experience (B) is a competency or resource attribute, team morale (C) is a team/people factor, and customer satisfaction (D) is an outcome or success measure rather than a defined constraint.

Answer

Project manager experience

Answer

Team morale

Answer

Customer satisfaction

Question 6

Who is responsible for providing the project with resources and removing obstacles that are beyond the project manager's control?

Accepted Answer

Project sponsor. The project sponsor is the senior executive who champions the project at the organizational level and is accountable for securing the resources (budget, people, facilities) and for escalating and resolving issues that exceed the project manager's authority. In CompTIA Project+ terms, the sponsor owns the business case and provides the organizational clout needed to remove roadblocks outside the project's direct control. The project manager manages day-to-day execution but cannot typically override functional managers or executive-level constraints without sponsor support.

Answer

Project manager

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Project team

Answer

Steering committee

Question 7

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the project initiation phase?

Accepted Answer

Stakeholder register. The project initiation phase produces the stakeholder register (A), which identifies everyone affected by or able to influence the project along with their interests, involvement, and impact, and the project charter (C), which formally authorizes the project and gives the project manager authority to apply organizational resources. Both are created during initiation per PMBOK: the charter is the key output of Develop Project Charter, and the stakeholder register is the key output of Identify Stakeholders, which occurs in initiation. The risk register (B) is not an initiation output; it is created later in the Planning process of Identify Risks. Lessons learned (D) are captured throughout the project and consolidated at closure, not produced as an initiation deliverable. The project schedule (E) is developed during planning in Develop Schedule, after the charter and stakeholder identification are complete.

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Lessons learned

Answer

Project schedule

Question 8

A project manager notices that the project is behind schedule. The planned value (PV) is $50,000, earned value (EV) is $40,000, and actual cost (AC) is $45,000. What is the schedule performance index (SPI) and what does it indicate?

Accepted Answer

0.8, behind schedule. SPI = EV / PV = 40,000 / 50,000 = 0.8. An SPI less than 1 indicates the project is behind schedule.

Answer

1.25, ahead of schedule

Answer

0.89, behind schedule

Answer

1.0, on schedule

Question 9

A project team is using planning poker to estimate user stories. What is the purpose of this technique?

Accepted Answer

To reach a consensus on story point estimates. Planning poker is a consensus-based estimation technique that uses story points to achieve team agreement on effort.

Answer

To define the product backlog

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To identify risks in user stories

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To assign tasks to team members

Question 10

A company is initiating a project to develop a new mobile application. The project manager needs to secure approval and funding. Which project role is primarily responsible for providing the necessary resources and championing the project?

Accepted Answer

Project sponsor. The project sponsor is the executive champion who provides resources and supports the project.

Answer

Project team member

Answer

Project manager

Answer

Steering committee

Question 11

A project manager is calculating the estimate to complete (ETC) for a task using earned value management. The task has a budget at completion (BAC) of $10,000, earned value (EV) of $4,000, and actual cost (AC) of $5,000. Assuming the work will continue at the planned rate, what is the ETC?

Accepted Answer

$6,000. The estimate to complete (ETC) is the expected cost to finish the remaining work. When work continues at the planned rate, the formula is ETC = BAC - EV. Here, BAC is $10,000 and EV is $4,000, so ETC = $10,000 - $4,000 = $6,000. This assumes the cost performance index (CPI) is 1.0, meaning future work will be performed exactly as budgeted.

Answer

$11,000

Answer

$4,000

Answer

$5,000

Question 12

While monitoring and controlling, the project manager reviews earned value metrics and finds CPI = 0.8 and SPI = 1.1. What does this indicate?

Accepted Answer

Over budget but ahead of schedule. CPI less than 1 indicates over budget; SPI greater than 1 indicates ahead of schedule. Therefore the project is over budget but ahead of schedule.

Answer

Under budget and ahead of schedule

Answer

Under budget but behind schedule

Answer

Over budget and behind schedule

Question 13

In a network diagram using PDM, activity B can start only after activity A has finished. Which dependency type does this represent?

Accepted Answer

Finish-to-Start (FS). Finish-to-Start (FS) is the most common dependency, where the successor activity cannot start until the predecessor activity has finished.

Answer

Finish-to-Finish (FF)

Answer

Start-to-Finish (SF)

Answer

Start-to-Start (SS)

Question 14

Which THREE documents are part of the project procurement management process?

Accepted Answer

Request for proposal (RFP). The Request for Proposal (RFP) is a key document in the project procurement management process, as it formally solicits bids from vendors for goods or services. It defines the project requirements and evaluation criteria, enabling a structured procurement process. The RFP is created after the procurement management plan and is essential for vendor selection.

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Project charter

Question 15

A project manager is identifying stakeholders and analyzing their influence on the project. Using a power/interest grid, which group should the project manager 'manage closely'?

Accepted Answer

High power, high interest. On the power/interest grid, stakeholders with high power and high interest are the key players who must be managed closely, because they can significantly influence the project and care deeply about its outcome. This quadrant requires the most engagement, frequent communication, and proactive management.

Answer

Low power, low interest

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Low power, high interest

Answer

High power, low interest

Question 16

A project manager is reviewing a project that has a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 1.1. What is the best interpretation?

Accepted Answer

The project is over budget and ahead of schedule. A CPI of 0.8 means the project is earning only $0.80 for every $1.00 spent, indicating cost overrun (over budget). An SPI of 1.1 means the project is earning $1.10 for every $1.00 of planned work, indicating progress ahead of schedule. Therefore, the project is over budget and ahead of schedule, making option B correct.

Answer

The project is on budget and on schedule

Answer

The project is over budget and behind schedule

Answer

The project is under budget and ahead of schedule

Question 17

In a power/interest grid, stakeholders with high power and low interest should be managed with which approach?

Accepted Answer

Keep satisfied. Stakeholders with high power and low interest fall into the 'Keep Satisfied' quadrant of the power/interest grid. Because they can exert significant influence over the project but don't care about day-to-day details, the PM should engage them enough to ensure their concerns are addressed without overloading them with information. This prevents them from becoming blockers while conserving communication effort.

Answer

Keep informed

Answer

Monitor

Answer

Manage closely

Question 18

A project manager is leading the deployment of a new customer-facing mobile application that will use a RESTful API. The API will be hosted on a public cloud and must handle sensitive user data. The project sponsor is concerned about security and wants to ensure that the API uses a standard protocol for authorization and that tokens are not easily compromised. Which approach should the project manager recommend?

Accepted Answer

OAuth 2.0 with bearer tokens over HTTPS. The sponsor requires a standard authorization protocol with protected tokens for a RESTful API. OAuth 2.0 with bearer tokens over HTTPS provides scoped, revocable access tokens that are encrypted in transit. Basic authentication, API keys in client code, and SAML over HTTP are either insecure or not designed for API authorization, so they fail to meet the security requirements.

Answer

API keys embedded in client-side code

Answer

Basic authentication over HTTP

Answer

SAML assertions sent over HTTP

Question 19

A project manager is preparing for the Closing phase of a project that involved an external vendor. Which TWO activities are essential to formally close the project? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Conduct a procurement audit and close the contract with the vendor.. Formal project closure requires obtaining final acceptance of the product and closing any procurement contracts, including conducting a procurement audit. These activities ensure the project is legally and administratively complete. Risk simulations, plan development, and stakeholder engagement updates belong to earlier phases and do not finalize the project.

Answer

Develop the project management plan and gain sponsor approval.

Answer

Update the stakeholder engagement plan with new communication preferences.

Answer

Perform a Monte Carlo simulation to reassess schedule risk.

Question 20

A project manager is reviewing the issue log and notices several unresolved issues that are blocking team progress. The PM wants to ensure these issues are tracked, assigned, and resolved in a timely manner. Which action should the project manager take?

Accepted Answer

Assign each issue to a responsible team member and set a target resolution date.. The issue log is used to document, assign, and track issues to resolution. Assigning each issue to a responsible team member and setting a target resolution date creates accountability and a timeline for resolution. This is the most direct and effective action to unblock the team. Escalation, risk register updates, or charter changes are not appropriate for routine issue management.

Answer

Update the risk register with the issues.

Answer

Add the issues to the project charter as constraints.

Answer

Escalate all issues to the project sponsor immediately.