PK0-005 Practice Exam 55 — 20 Questions

Question 1

A project manager is evaluating earned value metrics for a project. The CPI is 0.8 and the SPI is 0.9. Which TWO conclusions can the project manager draw?

Accepted Answer

The project is behind schedule. Option B is correct because an SPI of 0.9 is less than 1.0, which indicates that the project has earned less value than planned for the work scheduled, meaning it is behind schedule. Option D is correct because a CPI of 0.8 is less than 1.0, which indicates that the project is spending more than the value earned, meaning it is over budget. Option A is incorrect because an SPI below 1.0 never indicates being ahead of schedule. Option C is incorrect because a CPI below 1.0 indicates over budget, not under budget. Option E is incorrect because an SPI of exactly 1.0 would indicate being on schedule, and 0.9 does not meet that condition.

Answer

The project is ahead of schedule

Answer

The project is under budget

Answer

The project is on schedule

Question 2

A project manager is updating the issue log for a new issue: a critical supplier has gone out of business, causing a shortage of materials. Which TWO fields are essential to include in the issue log entry?

Accepted Answer

Priority. Option B (Priority) is essential because the issue log must record how urgently the issue needs to be addressed relative to other issues, so the team can sequence its response to the supplier failure appropriately. Option D (Owner) is essential because every issue entry must identify the single person accountable for driving the issue to resolution, ensuring the material shortage is actively managed rather than left unassigned. Options A (Risk score) and C (Probability) are attributes of risk register entries, not issue log fields, since an issue is a realized problem rather than a potential future event. Option E (Response strategy) is likewise a risk-management concept (e.g., mitigate, transfer, avoid) and does not belong in the issue log, which instead tracks resolution actions and status.

Answer

Risk score

Answer

Probability

Answer

Response strategy

Question 3

A project manager is reviewing a change request to modify the project scope. Which TWO items should be updated in the project management plan if the change is approved?

Accepted Answer

Scope baseline. The scope baseline (option B) must be updated because an approved scope change modifies the project's scope statement, WBS, and/or WBS dictionary, which together constitute the scope baseline; this is the core artifact affected when scope changes. The schedule baseline (option D) must also be updated because altering scope typically changes activities, durations, and dependencies, requiring a revised approved schedule baseline to reflect the new timeline. Both baselines are components of the project management plan and are formally revised through Perform Integrated Change Control when a change request is approved. The risk register (A), lessons learned register (C), and issue log (E) are project documents, not components of the project management plan, so they are not the items updated in the plan for this scenario.

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Lessons learned register

Answer

Issue log

Question 4

A project manager is reviewing the project constraints. The triple constraint traditionally includes scope, time, and cost. However, quality is also often considered a constraint. Which TWO of the following are part of the triple constraint? (Select TWO).

Accepted Answer

Time. The triple constraint, also called the project management triangle, consists of scope, time, and cost (or schedule and budget). Option A (Time) is correct because schedule/duration is one of the three foundational constraints that must be balanced against the others. Option B (Scope) is correct because the defined deliverables and work required form another core leg of the triangle. Option C (Quality) is not part of the traditional triple constraint; it is often described as a fourth dimension affected by the balance of the three. Option D (Resources) and Option E (Risk) are broader project factors or knowledge areas, not the classic triple constraint components.

Answer

Quality

Answer

Resources

Answer

Risk

Question 5

A project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 1.2. Which TWO conclusions can be drawn? (Select TWO.)

Accepted Answer

The project is ahead of schedule. Option B is correct because an SPI of 1.2 is greater than 1.0, which indicates that the project is ahead of schedule, as earned value exceeds planned value. Option E is correct because a CPI of 0.8 is less than 1.0, which indicates that the project is over budget, as the cost of work performed exceeds the earned value. Option A is incorrect because the project is neither on schedule nor on budget, given SPI > 1 and CPI < 1. Option C is incorrect because a CPI below 1.0 means the project is over budget, not under budget. Option D is incorrect because an SPI above 1.0 means the project is ahead of schedule, not behind schedule.

Answer

The project is on schedule and on budget

Answer

The project is under budget

Answer

The project is behind schedule

Question 6

A project manager is conducting a lessons learned session at the end of a project. Which TWO activities are typically performed during project closure? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

Archiving project documents. Option A (Archiving project documents) is correct because project closure includes collecting, indexing, and storing all project records, deliverables, and lessons learned in the organizational knowledge base for future reference and audit purposes. Option E (Obtaining formal acceptance from the sponsor) is correct because closure requires verifying that deliverables meet requirements and securing the sponsor's sign-off, which formally confirms the project's completion. Option B (Developing the project charter) is incorrect because the charter is created during project initiation to authorize the project, not at closure. Option C (Creating the work breakdown structure) is incorrect because the WBS is developed during project planning to decompose scope into manageable work packages. Option D (Performing risk identification) is incorrect because risk identification is an ongoing activity primarily performed during planning and monitoring, not a typical closure activity.

Answer

Developing the project charter

Answer

Creating the work breakdown structure

Answer

Performing risk identification

Question 7

During project execution, the project manager notices that the team is struggling with communication, and key stakeholders are not receiving timely updates. Which THREE documents should the project manager review to improve the situation? (Select THREE).

Accepted Answer

Issue log. The Issue log (B) is correct because it records active problems such as the team's communication struggles and stakeholders missing updates, letting the project manager track and resolve these execution-phase issues. The Communication management plan (D) is correct because it defines who receives what information, in what format, and at what frequency, so reviewing it directly reveals and corrects the gaps in timely stakeholder updates. The Stakeholder register (E) is correct because it identifies each stakeholder's communication requirements, expectations, and influence, which is essential for targeting the right updates to the right people. The Risk register (A) is not selected because it deals with potential future uncertainties rather than the current, realized communication problem. The Work Breakdown Structure (C) is not selected because it only decomposes project scope and deliverables and contains no communication or stakeholder information.

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Work Breakdown Structure

Question 8

A project manager is planning a construction project and identifies that the project has a fixed budget and a strict deadline. The sponsor emphasizes that quality cannot be compromised. Which THREE constraints are directly affected when a change request is approved? (Select THREE).

Accepted Answer

Schedule. In project management, the triple constraint (also called the iron triangle) consists of scope, schedule, and cost, and any approved change request directly impacts these three constraints. Option A (Schedule) is correct because a change in scope or requirements typically requires adjusting the project timeline, and the strict deadline means schedule impacts must be carefully evaluated. Option D (Scope) is correct because a change request by definition modifies the project scope, whether by adding, removing, or altering deliverables. Option E (Cost) is correct because the fixed budget means any scope or schedule change will directly affect the cost baseline, requiring budget adjustments or trade-offs. Options B (Resources) and C (Risk) are not part of the traditional triple constraint; while changes may indirectly influence resource allocation or risk exposure, they are not the three constraints directly and formally affected by an approved change request in this context.

Answer

Resources

Answer

Risk

Question 9

During the planning phase, which three documents are typically created? (Select THREE.)

Accepted Answer

Risk register. The Risk register (A) is a planning-phase artifact because it is created during risk planning to identify, analyze, and document risks along with their probability, impact, and responses. The Work Breakdown Structure (B) is produced in planning when the project scope is decomposed into deliverables and work packages, forming the basis for estimating and scheduling. The Schedule baseline (D) is also a planning output, established once the schedule is developed and approved, and it is used to measure schedule performance. The Project charter (C) is not a planning document because it is created and approved during the initiating phase, before planning begins. Lessons learned (E) is not a planning document because it is compiled throughout the project and finalized during closing, not typically created as a planning-phase output.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Lessons learned

Question 10

A project manager is calculating the cost performance index (CPI) for a project. The earned value (EV) is $50,000 and the actual cost (AC) is $60,000. What does the CPI indicate? (Select TWO correct statements.)

Accepted Answer

The project is over budget.. The CPI is calculated as EV / AC = $50,000 / $60,000 = 0.83, which means the project is earning only $0.83 of value for every $1 spent, so option D is correct. Because the CPI is less than 1.0, the project is spending more than the value it is earning, which indicates it is over budget, making option A correct. Options B and C are incorrect because a CPI below 1.0 never indicates under budget or a favorable $1.20 return per dollar. Option E is incorrect because CPI measures cost efficiency, not schedule performance, which would be assessed using the schedule performance index (SPI).

Answer

The project is under budget.

Answer

The project is getting $1.20 worth of work for every $1 spent.

Answer

The project is on schedule.

Question 11

A project manager is creating a WBS. Which two best practices should be followed? (Select TWO)

Accepted Answer

Ensure each element is a deliverable. Option A is correct because a WBS is a deliverable-oriented decomposition of the project scope, so each element (node) must represent a tangible, verifiable deliverable or scope component rather than an action. Option B is correct because decomposition should continue down to the work package level, the lowest WBS level, where work can be estimated, scheduled, monitored, and assigned to a single owner. Option C is incorrect because durations are estimated during schedule development (e.g., in the activity list and schedule network), not defined in the WBS itself. Option D is incorrect because activities belong to the activity list derived from work packages, not to the WBS hierarchy, which stays deliverable-focused. Option E is incorrect because a WBS must be decomposed to a sufficient level of detail to manage the work, not limited to only high-level scope.

Answer

Assign durations to elements

Answer

Include project activities

Answer

Include only high-level scope

Question 12

A project manager is closing a project. Which TWO activities are typically performed during the closing phase?

Accepted Answer

Obtaining formal acceptance from the sponsor. Option C (Obtaining formal acceptance from the sponsor) is correct because the closing phase requires verifying that deliverables meet requirements and securing the sponsor's sign-off, which formally confirms project completion and triggers final payments or handover. Option D (Archiving project documents) is correct because closing includes collecting, indexing, and storing project records, lessons learned, and final reports in the organizational knowledge repository for future reference and audits. Option A (Performing earned value analysis) belongs to monitoring and controlling, where EVM metrics like CPI and SPI are calculated during execution, not at closure. Option B (Creating the risk register) is a planning activity performed in risk management before execution begins. Option E (Developing the project charter) is an initiating process that formally authorizes the project, so it occurs before any closing work.

Answer

Performing earned value analysis

Answer

Creating the risk register

Answer

Developing the project charter

Question 13

A project manager is reviewing the project management plan. Which two components should be included? (Select TWO).

Accepted Answer

Schedule baseline. The project management plan is the document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed, and it formally includes the schedule baseline (A) as an approved version of the schedule model used to compare actual performance against planned dates. It also includes the scope baseline (D), which comprises the approved scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary and serves as the reference for scope verification and control. By contrast, the issue log (B) is a project document, not a plan component, and it records and tracks open issues rather than defining baselines or management approaches. The risk register (C) is likewise a project document that captures identified risks, their analysis, and responses, and the stakeholder register (E) is a project document listing stakeholder identification, assessment, and classification information. None of B, C, or E are baselines or subsidiary management plans, so they are not components of the project management plan.

Answer

Issue log

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Stakeholder register

Question 14

During a project, the project manager calculates the following: Earned Value (EV) = $50,000, Planned Value (PV) = $60,000, Actual Cost (AC) = $55,000. Which statement accurately describes the project's performance?

Accepted Answer

The project is behind schedule and over budget.. Schedule Variance (SV) = EV - PV = $50,000 - $60,000 = -$10,000, indicating behind schedule. Cost Variance (CV) = EV - AC = $50,000 - $55,000 = -$5,000, indicating over budget.

Answer

The project is ahead of schedule and under budget.

Answer

The project is ahead of schedule and over budget.

Answer

The project is behind schedule and under budget.

Question 15

A project team is experiencing conflicts between two key members. The project manager wants to resolve the issue quickly to avoid delays. Which conflict resolution technique involves the project manager making a decision without discussion?

Accepted Answer

Forcing. The forcing technique (also known as 'competing') involves the project manager imposing a decision unilaterally without input or discussion from the conflicting parties. This approach is appropriate when a quick resolution is needed to avoid project delays, as the question states. It does not seek consensus or compromise but rather asserts authority to move forward.

Answer

Collaborating

Answer

Compromising

Answer

Smoothing

Question 16

A project manager is creating a lessons learned document. Which TWO are typical components of lessons learned? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Recommendations for future projects. Option A (Recommendations for future projects) is correct because lessons learned documents are specifically meant to capture actionable guidance—what to repeat and what to avoid—so future project teams can improve their planning and execution. Option C (Project success factors) is correct because identifying the elements that contributed to positive outcomes (e.g., effective communication, strong sponsorship, proven processes) is a core purpose of lessons learned, allowing those factors to be replicated. Budget variance (B) is a cost-control metric typically reported in performance reports, not a standard lessons learned component. Team member performance reviews (D) are HR/performance-management artifacts and are not part of lessons learned. Stakeholder satisfaction survey results (E) are stakeholder management data that may inform lessons learned but are not themselves a typical component of the document.

Answer

Budget variance

Answer

Team member performance reviews

Answer

Stakeholder satisfaction survey results

Question 17

A project manager is working on a software development project. The team has identified a potential risk that could cause a two-week delay. The project manager decides to add extra resources to the critical path to reduce the impact. Which risk response strategy is being used?

Accepted Answer

Mitigate. Adding extra resources to the critical path to reduce the impact of a potential two-week delay is a classic example of the Mitigate risk response strategy. Mitigation aims to reduce the probability or impact of a risk, and here the project manager is proactively reducing the impact by increasing capacity on the critical path. This is not accepting the risk, avoiding it, or transferring it to a third party.

Answer

Accept

Answer

Avoid

Answer

Transfer

Question 18

Which THREE of the following are responsibilities of a project manager during project closure?

Accepted Answer

Obtain formal acceptance of deliverables. Obtaining formal acceptance of deliverables is a key responsibility during project closure because it ensures that the customer or stakeholder has signed off that all project requirements have been met. This formal acceptance triggers the transition to operations and closes the contractual or service obligations. Without it, the project cannot be considered officially complete, and any remaining disputes would remain unresolved.

Answer

Execute remaining project tasks

Answer

Update the risk register

Question 19

A project manager is evaluating whether to implement a PMO (Project Management Office) for the organization. Which scenario would best justify the creation of a PMO?

Accepted Answer

The organization has multiple projects with inconsistent processes and low success rates.. A PMO is justified when an organization faces inconsistent processes and low project success rates across multiple projects. The PMO provides standardization, governance, and best practices to improve consistency and success rates, directly addressing the root cause of poor performance.

Answer

Projects are consistently completed under budget.

Answer

The project manager has extensive experience.

Answer

The organization has a single large project.

Question 20

The sponsor asks the project manager to accelerate the project schedule without changing scope. Which technique should the project manager recommend?

Accepted Answer

Crashing. Crashing is the correct technique because it involves adding additional resources to critical path activities to compress the project schedule without altering scope. This directly addresses the sponsor's request to accelerate the schedule while keeping the project scope unchanged.

Answer

Monte Carlo simulation

Answer

Fast tracking

Answer

Resource leveling