PK0-005 Practice Exam 54 — 20 Questions

Question 1

A project has earned value (EV) of $50,000, actual cost (AC) of $60,000, and planned value (PV) of $55,000. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?

Accepted Answer

0.83. The cost performance index (CPI) is calculated as EV divided by AC. With EV = $50,000 and AC = $60,000, CPI = 50,000 / 60,000 = 0.8333, which rounds to 0.83. A CPI less than 1.0 indicates the project is over budget, as each dollar of work completed costs more than planned.

Answer

0.91

Answer

1.20

Answer

1.10

Question 2

Which document formally authorizes the project and identifies the project manager?

Accepted Answer

Project charter. The project charter is the document that formally authorizes the project, provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities, and identifies the project manager by name. It is issued by a sponsor external to the project and serves as the foundational document that links the project to the ongoing work of the organization.

Answer

Communication plan

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Project scope statement

Question 3

A project manager receives a status report showing that the project is behind schedule. The report uses a red-yellow-green status indicator. What does the red indicator typically signify?

Accepted Answer

Off track with critical issues. In project management status reporting, a red indicator typically signifies that the project is off track with critical issues, meaning the project is significantly behind schedule, over budget, or facing major risks that require immediate attention. This aligns with the standard red-yellow-green (RAG) status system used in tools like Microsoft Project or Jira, where red indicates a severe deviation from the baseline plan that cannot be resolved without intervention.

Answer

On track

Answer

Caution with potential issues

Answer

Completed ahead of schedule

Question 4

A project manager is assigned to a project that has already been chartered. The project sponsor has provided the project charter and initial budget. The project manager is now in the planning phase. During the first planning meeting, the team identifies a major risk: a key supplier may go out of business before the project ends. The project manager needs to proceed. Which of the following is the NEXT step?

Accepted Answer

Add the risk to the risk register and develop a response plan.. The project manager is in the planning phase, and the first step when a risk is identified is to formally document it in the risk register. After adding the risk, the team should analyze it and develop a response plan. This aligns with the PMBOK Guide's risk management process, which requires recording risks before taking action.

Answer

Immediately switch to an alternative supplier.

Answer

Continue planning and address the risk later.

Answer

Escalate the risk to the sponsor for decision.

Question 5

A project manager is reviewing the project schedule and notices that the critical path has a duration of 120 days. One activity on the critical path has a duration of 15 days and a total float of 0. If the duration of that activity is reduced by 5 days, what is the new critical path duration?

Accepted Answer

115 days. The critical path is the longest path in the project schedule, and any delay on a critical path activity directly extends the project duration. Since the activity on the critical path has a total float of 0, reducing its duration by 5 days reduces the total critical path duration from 120 days to 115 days.

Answer

100 days

Answer

120 days

Answer

125 days

Question 6

During project execution, the team uses a shared online workspace to collaborate on documents. This is an example of which type of tool?

Accepted Answer

Collaboration tool. A shared online workspace where team members concurrently edit documents, share files, and track changes in real time is a collaboration tool. Unlike simple communication or documentation tools, it integrates multiple functions (editing, version control, commenting) to support synchronous or asynchronous teamwork. This aligns with the definition of collaboration software such as Microsoft SharePoint, Google Workspace, or Confluence.

Answer

Documentation tool

Answer

Communication tool

Answer

Project management software

Question 7

A project manager needs to track the start and end dates of tasks as well as dependencies. Which tool should be used?

Accepted Answer

Gantt chart. A Gantt chart is the correct tool because it visually displays task start and end dates along a timeline, and it can explicitly show dependencies between tasks using arrows or linking lines. This makes it ideal for project scheduling and tracking progress against planned dates.

Answer

Control chart

Answer

Fishbone diagram

Answer

Pareto chart

Question 8

A project manager is reviewing the project's earned value data. The cost performance index (CPI) is 0.85, and the schedule performance index (SPI) is 1.05. What does this indicate about the project?

Accepted Answer

The project is over budget and ahead of schedule. The Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.85 indicates that for every dollar spent, only $0.85 of earned value is received, meaning the project is over budget. The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) of 1.05 indicates that the project is progressing at 105% of the planned rate, meaning it is ahead of schedule. Therefore, the project is over budget and ahead of schedule, making option D correct.

Answer

The project is under budget but behind schedule

Answer

The project is over budget but behind schedule

Answer

The project is under budget and ahead of schedule

Question 9

A project manager is using a Gantt chart to track progress. Which tool would BEST complement the Gantt chart to show task dependencies and the critical path?

Accepted Answer

Network diagram. A network diagram (e.g., activity-on-node or PERT chart) is the best complement to a Gantt chart because it explicitly maps task dependencies (finish-to-start, start-to-start, etc.) and calculates the critical path using forward and backward pass methods. While a Gantt chart shows progress over time, it does not inherently display the logical relationships between tasks or the float/slack values needed to identify the critical path.

Answer

Change log

Answer

Work breakdown structure

Answer

Risk register

Question 10

Refer to the exhibit. A project manager is monitoring server performance for a web application deployment. Based on the exhibit, what is the status of the web server?

Accepted Answer

The server is running and handling connections. The exhibit shows the web server is in a 'LISTENING' state on port 80, with established connections (ESTABLISHED) to client IPs. This indicates the server process is running, the TCP handshake completed successfully, and it is actively handling HTTP requests. Option D is correct because a listening socket with established sessions confirms operational status.

Answer

The server has a firewall blocking connections

Answer

The server is overloaded

Answer

The server is not running

Question 11

A project team is developing a new software product. The product owner frequently changes priorities based on customer feedback. The team needs to adapt quickly and deliver value incrementally. Which project management methodology is most suitable?

Accepted Answer

Agile. Agile is the overarching methodology suited to environments with frequently changing priorities and a need for incremental value delivery, emphasizing iterative development, customer collaboration, and responsiveness to change. The scenario describes exactly the Agile mindset. Scrum is a specific Agile framework, but Agile is the broader methodology the question asks for.

Answer

Waterfall

Answer

Critical path method

Answer

Scrum

Question 12

A project manager is evaluating two project proposals. Proposal A has an NPV of $50,000 and a payback period of 2 years. Proposal B has an NPV of $30,000 and a payback period of 1.5 years. Which proposal is more financially beneficial based on NPV?

Accepted Answer

Proposal A because it has a higher NPV. Net Present Value (NPV) is the primary discounted cash flow metric for comparing project profitability; the higher the NPV, the greater the value created. Proposal A's NPV of $50,000 exceeds Proposal B's $30,000, so Proposal A is more financially beneficial on an NPV basis. Payback period is a secondary liquidity metric and does not override NPV when the question explicitly asks based on NPV.

Answer

Proposal B because it has a shorter payback period

Answer

Cannot be determined from the information given

Answer

Both are equally beneficial

Question 13

During the planning phase, a team identifies a risk that could cause a 10% increase in project cost if it occurs, with a 20% probability. What is the expected monetary value (EMV) of this risk?

Accepted Answer

2% of project cost. EMV = Probability × Impact = 0.20 × 0.10 = 0.02, or 2% of the project cost.

Answer

20% of project cost

Answer

10% of project cost

Answer

30% of project cost

Question 14

A project sponsor wants to formally close a project. Which of the following documents should the project manager prepare to obtain sign-off that the project is complete?

Accepted Answer

Final project report. The final project report provides the basis for the sponsor or customer to formally accept the project deliverables.

Answer

Stakeholder register

Answer

Lessons learned

Answer

Project charter

Question 15

During project closing, which activity involves obtaining formal acceptance from the customer or sponsor that deliverables meet requirements?

Accepted Answer

Formal acceptance. Formal acceptance is obtained from the customer or sponsor during closing, often via a project acceptance form.

Answer

Lessons learned

Answer

Archiving project documents

Answer

Final project report

Question 16

Which THREE items are typically found in a project management plan? (Select THREE).

Accepted Answer

Schedule management plan. The project management plan is the integrated, approved document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed, and it contains subsidiary management plans for each knowledge area. Option A, the schedule management plan, is correct because it is a subsidiary plan defining how the project schedule is developed, monitored, and controlled (e.g., scheduling methodology, tools, and format). Option B, the scope management plan, is correct because it is a subsidiary plan describing how scope is defined, validated, and controlled, including the process for creating the WBS and handling scope changes. Option E, the risk management plan, is correct because it is a subsidiary plan specifying risk management methodology, roles, budgeting, timing, risk categories, and probability/impact definitions. Option C, the project charter, is not part of the project management plan; it is the document that formally authorizes the project and precedes and provides input to the plan. Option D, the work breakdown structure (WBS), is not part of the plan either; the WBS is a scope baseline component created via the Create WBS process, and only the WBS dictionary and scope baseline are referenced within the scope management plan.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 17

An agile team is reviewing their work. Which TWO metrics can be used to track progress within a sprint? (Select TWO).

Accepted Answer

Burnup chart. A burnup chart (B) is correct because it tracks the amount of work completed against the total scope over time, letting the team see progress within a sprint and whether scope changes are affecting completion. A burndown chart (E) is correct because it plots remaining work (typically in story points or hours) against time in the sprint, showing whether the team is on track to finish by sprint end. Both are standard sprint-level progress tracking tools in agile. The product backlog (A) is a prioritized list of work items, not a progress metric, and it spans the whole product rather than a single sprint. A Kanban board (C) is a visual workflow management tool that shows work status, not a quantitative progress metric. Velocity (D) measures the average amount of work completed per sprint and is used for release/forecast planning across sprints, not for tracking progress within a single sprint.

Answer

Product backlog

Answer

Kanban board

Answer

Velocity

Question 18

A large government project is in the initiation phase. The project charter has been drafted, but there is disagreement among key stakeholders about the project's objectives. Some stakeholders want to maximize functionality, while others want to minimize cost. The project manager must lead the effort to resolve this. Which of the following is the BEST approach?

Accepted Answer

Facilitate a meeting to prioritize requirements and reach consensus.. The project manager's role during the initiation phase is to align stakeholders on project objectives. Facilitating a meeting to prioritize requirements and reach consensus directly addresses the disagreement between maximizing functionality and minimizing cost, ensuring the project charter reflects agreed-upon goals before proceeding.

Answer

Proceed with the charter as written, as it has been signed by the sponsor.

Answer

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis and present the results to stakeholders.

Answer

Divide the project into phases, starting with a small pilot to gather data.

Question 19

Which TWO of the following are methods of schedule compression? (Select TWO).

Accepted Answer

Crashing. Crashing (A) is a schedule compression technique that shortens the project duration by adding resources (e.g., more staff, overtime, or extra equipment) to critical path activities, trading increased cost for reduced duration. Fast-tracking (C) is the other recognized schedule compression method; it overlaps activities that would normally be performed sequentially, such as starting a successor task before its predecessor finishes, to shorten the overall timeline. Monte Carlo simulation (B) is a quantitative risk analysis technique that models probability distributions to forecast schedule or cost outcomes, not a compression method. Variance analysis (D) is a control technique that compares actual versus planned performance (e.g., schedule variance) to detect deviations, not to compress the schedule. Resource leveling (E) adjusts start and finish dates to resolve resource over-allocation, which typically extends rather than compresses the schedule.

Answer

Monte Carlo simulation

Answer

Variance analysis

Answer

Resource leveling

Question 20

A project manager is updating the issue log. Which TWO fields are typically included in a well-structured issue log? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Issue owner. Option B (Issue owner) is correct because a well-structured issue log must assign accountability by identifying the person responsible for resolving or managing each issue, ensuring follow-up and ownership. Option C (Resolution date) is correct because recording the date an issue is resolved (or the target resolution date) provides tracking, closure status, and historical data for the log. Option A (Response strategy) is not typical for an issue log; response strategies belong to risk management planning (e.g., avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept). Option D (Risk score) is a risk-register field derived from probability and impact, not a standard issue-log field. Option E (Probability) is also a risk-analysis attribute used in risk registers, not an issue-log field.

Answer

Response strategy

Answer

Risk score

Answer

Probability