PK0-005 Practice Exam 52 — 20 Questions

Question 1

Which THREE documents are typically part of the project management plan?

Accepted Answer

Risk management plan. The project management plan is a composite document that integrates subsidiary plans, and the risk management plan (A) is one of those subsidiary plans describing how risk activities will be structured and performed. The scope management plan (D) is likewise a subsidiary plan that defines how scope will be defined, validated, and controlled. The communication plan (E) is also a subsidiary plan specifying how project information will be planned, collected, and distributed among stakeholders. The project charter (B) is not part of the project management plan because it formally authorizes the project and precedes the plan. The lessons learned register (C) is a project document, not a component of the project management plan.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Lessons learned register

Question 2

A project manager is selecting tools for an Agile project. Which TWO tools are commonly used for Agile project management? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

Trello. Trello (A) is correct because it is a widely used Agile tool built around boards, lists, and cards that directly support Kanban-style workflows, backlog management, and sprint task tracking. Jira (C) is correct because it is purpose-built for Agile software development, offering Scrum and Kanban boards, sprint planning, burndown charts, and backlog grooming features. Microsoft Project (B) is a traditional waterfall-oriented scheduling tool focused on Gantt charts and critical-path planning, so it is not typically classified as an Agile management tool. Smartsheet (D) is a general-purpose spreadsheet-style work management platform, not a dedicated Agile tool. PERT chart (E) is a network diagramming technique used for estimating and sequencing tasks in predictive/waterfall projects, not an Agile project management tool.

Answer

Microsoft Project

Answer

Smartsheet

Answer

PERT chart

Question 3

During project execution, a customer requests a new feature that was not in the original scope. The project manager receives a change request. What is the NEXT step the project manager should take?

Accepted Answer

Evaluate the impact on the triple constraint.. The next step after receiving a change request is to evaluate its impact on the triple constraint (scope, schedule, cost) and other project constraints, because this analysis informs whether the change is feasible and what trade-offs are required. Only after impact assessment should the request go to the CCB for a decision.

Answer

Implement the change immediately to satisfy the customer.

Answer

Submit the change request to the change control board (CCB).

Answer

Update the project baselines.

Question 4

Which TWO documents are commonly used to define and control project scope? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS). The Work breakdown structure (WBS) is correct because it decomposes the total project scope into manageable, hierarchical deliverables and work packages, providing the definitive framework for defining and controlling what is in scope. The Scope statement is correct because it formally documents the project's deliverables, boundaries, acceptance criteria, and exclusions, serving as the baseline against which scope changes are evaluated and controlled. The Project schedule is not a scope-defining document; it sequences activities and timelines derived from the WBS and scope baseline. The Risk register tracks identified risks, their analysis, and responses, not scope definition. The Project charter authorizes the project and provides high-level scope, but detailed scope definition and control are accomplished through the scope statement and WBS.

Answer

Project schedule

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Project charter

Question 5

A project manager notices that a task is taking longer than planned and the project is falling behind schedule. The project manager wants to identify the root cause of the delay. Which quality tool would be most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Cause-and-effect diagram. The cause-and-effect diagram (also known as a fishbone or Ishikawa diagram) is the most appropriate quality tool for identifying the root cause of a delay because it systematically maps potential causes (e.g., resources, processes, environment) to the observed effect (the schedule delay). Unlike other tools that show data distribution or trends, this diagram is designed for root cause analysis by visually brainstorming and categorizing contributing factors.

Answer

Histogram

Answer

Control chart

Answer

Pareto chart

Question 6

During a project kickoff meeting, the team identifies several potential risks. The project manager decides to document them in a structured format. Which project document should the project manager use to record and track these risks throughout the project?

Accepted Answer

Risk register. The risk register is the formal project document used to record identified risks, their analysis, planned responses, and status throughout the project lifecycle. In the PK0-005 context, it is the definitive tool for tracking risks from identification through closure, ensuring all risks are managed systematically.

Answer

Brainstorming

Answer

Nominal group technique

Answer

SWOT analysis

Question 7

A project requires a specific software library that is only available from a single vendor. The vendor's delivery schedule dictates when the project can begin integration testing. This dependency is best described as:

Accepted Answer

External dependency. An external dependency is a dependency on a factor outside the project team's control, such as a vendor's delivery schedule. Since the software library is only available from a single vendor and the vendor dictates the integration testing timeline, this is an external dependency. It is not a resource constraint, mandatory dependency, or discretionary dependency.

Answer

Resource constraint

Answer

Mandatory dependency

Answer

Discretionary dependency

Question 8

Which TWO tools are commonly used for schedule management? (Select TWO.)

Accepted Answer

Network diagram. A network diagram (C) is a standard schedule management tool because it models activities and their logical dependencies (e.g., finish-to-start relationships) and supports critical path analysis to determine project duration and float. A Gantt chart (D) is likewise a core scheduling tool, displaying activities as horizontal bars against a timeline to show start and finish dates, durations, and progress. Both are explicitly used in the PMBOK schedule management processes for developing and controlling the schedule. The unmarked options do not belong: a control chart (A) monitors process stability and variation in quality management, a Pareto chart (B) prioritizes problems by frequency in quality management, and a RACI matrix (E) is a responsibility assignment tool for resource management, not scheduling.

Answer

Control chart

Answer

Pareto chart

Answer

RACI matrix

Question 9

Which document contains information such as issue ID, description, owner, priority, status, and resolution date?

Accepted Answer

Issue log. The issue log is the project document that records and tracks issues, including fields such as issue ID, description, owner, priority, status, and resolution date. It provides a centralized record for monitoring and resolving issues throughout the project lifecycle. This matches the fields listed in the question exactly.

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Work breakdown structure

Answer

Change log

Question 10

Which TWO items are typically included in a project closure report?

Accepted Answer

Final project performance summary. The project closure report typically includes the final project performance summary (C), because it documents how the project performed against scope, schedule, cost, and quality baselines, providing stakeholders with a definitive record of results and variances. It also includes lessons learned (D), which capture what went well, what did not, and recommendations for future projects as part of organizational process assets. The risk register (A) is a living project document used during execution and is not a standard component of the closure report, though risks may be referenced in lessons learned. The project schedule (B) is a planning and control artifact, not a closure report element, and the stakeholder engagement plan (E) is likewise a project management plan component rather than part of the closure report.

Answer

The risk register

Answer

The project schedule

Answer

The stakeholder engagement plan

Question 11

Which TWO of the following are key responsibilities of a project manager during the monitoring and controlling process group?

Accepted Answer

Measure project performance against the baseline. Option A is correct because monitoring and controlling centers on comparing actual project performance (schedule, cost, scope, quality) against the approved performance baseline and identifying variances so corrective or preventive action can be taken. Option E is correct because the issue log is a project document that is continuously updated during monitoring and controlling as issues are identified, assigned, tracked, and resolved, feeding into work performance reports and change requests. Option B does not belong because closing procurements is part of the Closing process group (Close Project or Phase), not monitoring and controlling. Option C does not belong because managing stakeholder engagement is a distinct Executing process (Manage Stakeholder Engagement), whereas monitoring stakeholder relationships falls under Monitor Stakeholder Engagement. Option D does not belong because approving changes to the project charter is a governance/integration responsibility typically handled through the Perform Integrated Change Control process and by the sponsor or authorized approver, not a routine monitoring and controlling duty of the project manager.

Answer

Close out procurement

Answer

Manage stakeholder engagement

Answer

Approve changes to the project charter

Question 12

A project sponsor is reviewing a proposal for a new project. The expected cash flows are: Year 0: -$100,000; Year 1: $30,000; Year 2: $40,000; Year 3: $50,000. The discount rate is 10%. Which of the following is the Net Present Value (NPV) of the project?

Accepted Answer

-$2,103. NPV = -100,000 + 30,000/(1.10)^1 + 40,000/(1.10)^2 + 50,000/(1.10)^3 = -100,000 + 27,273 + 33,058 + 37,566 = -2,103. Negative NPV means the project is not profitable at 10% discount rate.

Answer

-$20,000

Answer

$20,000

Answer

$2,103

Question 13

A project manager is estimating the cost of a new software development project. They use historical data from a similar project to derive the cost per function point and multiply it by the expected number of function points. Which estimation technique is being used?

Accepted Answer

Parametric estimation. Parametric estimation uses historical data and statistical relationships between variables to calculate cost. Here, the project manager uses cost per function point from a similar project and multiplies by the expected number of function points, which is a classic parametric approach.

Answer

Bottom-up estimation

Answer

Three-point estimation

Answer

Analogous estimation

Question 14

In an agile project, the team is using user stories to capture requirements. Which of the following is the correct format for a user story?

Accepted Answer

As a customer, I want to view my order history, so that I can track my purchases.. Follows the standard user story format: 'As a [user role], I want [goal], so that [benefit].' This structure is prescribed by agile methodologies like Scrum and XP to ensure requirements are user-centric, testable, and value-driven. The 'so that' clause provides the business rationale, which is critical for prioritization and acceptance criteria definition.

Answer

The system shall allow users to login.

Answer

Login functionality must be implemented.

Answer

As a user, I want to login, and the system must be secure.

Question 15

During a project, the team adds extra features to a deliverable because they believe it will increase customer satisfaction, even though the features were not specified in the requirements. This is an example of:

Accepted Answer

Gold plating. Gold plating is the deliberate addition of features or functionality that were not requested in the requirements, typically done by the team believing it adds value. Because the team voluntarily added unrequested features to increase customer satisfaction, this matches the definition of gold plating exactly. It differs from scope creep, which is uncontrolled expansion of scope usually driven by stakeholders or changing requirements rather than the team's own initiative.

Answer

Scope creep

Answer

Risk response

Answer

Value engineering

Question 16

During a software development project, the team estimates story points using planning poker. A story is estimated at 8 points, while a similar story was previously estimated at 5 points. What is the primary reason for using relative sizing with story points?

Accepted Answer

To compare the effort of stories relative to each other. Story points are a relative measure of effort; the exact values are less important than the relative comparison. Planning poker facilitates consensus.

Answer

To assign story points based on the developer’s skill level

Answer

To track the number of story points completed per day

Answer

To calculate exact hours needed for each story

Question 17

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the risk register, which risk has the highest risk score?

Accepted Answer

R003. Risk R003 has the highest risk score because the risk register shows a probability of 0.8 and an impact of 0.9, yielding a risk score of 0.72 (0.8 × 0.9). This is higher than R001 (0.5 × 0.7 = 0.35) and R002 (0.6 × 0.8 = 0.48). In project risk management, the risk score is calculated by multiplying probability and impact, and R003's product is the greatest.

Answer

R001

Answer

All risks have the same score

Answer

R002

Question 18

A project involves integrating an on-premises IT infrastructure with a public cloud provider. The project team must ensure secure connectivity. Which of the following should be implemented?

Accepted Answer

VPN. A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is the correct choice because it creates an encrypted tunnel over the public internet between the on-premises infrastructure and the public cloud provider, ensuring secure connectivity. Technologies like IPsec or TLS-based VPNs authenticate both endpoints and encrypt all traffic, preventing eavesdropping and tampering during transit.

Answer

DNS

Answer

NAT

Answer

VLAN

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit. A project manager is reviewing the security configuration of a project's cloud storage. Which of the following is the MOST significant security risk?

Accepted Answer

The policy allows any user. The policy statement with an unrestricted principal allows any user (authenticated or unauthenticated) to access the cloud storage. This is the most significant security risk as it effectively makes the storage publicly accessible, allowing anyone to read, write, or delete objects without restriction. Even if other settings like encryption are missing, a wide-open principal is a direct and immediate exposure.

Answer

The policy lacks encryption

Answer

The policy allows all actions

Answer

The policy uses an outdated version

Question 20

A project team is deploying new servers in a virtualized environment. The project scope includes performance monitoring. Which tool should the team configure to baseline CPU and memory usage?

Accepted Answer

Hypervisor management console. The hypervisor management console (e.g., vCenter for VMware or Hyper-V Manager) provides built-in performance monitoring and historical data collection for virtualized servers, allowing the team to baseline CPU and memory usage directly from the virtualization layer. This is the correct tool because it captures resource utilization at the hypervisor level, which is essential for establishing performance baselines in a virtualized environment.

Answer

SNMP trap receiver

Answer

Load balancer

Answer

Network analyzer