PK0-005 Practice Test 39 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A project manager is managing a construction project. The scope is well-defined, but the customer is open to minor changes during execution. Which methodology is most suitable?

Accepted Answer

Hybrid. A hybrid methodology combines predictive planning for the well-defined scope with agile flexibility for minor changes during execution, making it ideal for construction projects where the overall plan is fixed but the customer may request small adjustments. This balances the need for upfront planning with adaptability.

Answer

Predictive

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Kanban

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Agile

Question 2

A project manager is creating the WBS. Which rule ensures that all deliverables and work required for the project are included in the WBS and no work is omitted?

Accepted Answer

100% rule. The 100% rule in project management states that the WBS includes 100% of the work defined by the project scope and captures all deliverables—internal, external, interim—in terms of work to be completed. It ensures no work is omitted and no extra work is included, providing a complete and accurate representation of the project scope.

Answer

Rolling wave planning

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Scope verification

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Decomposition rule

Question 3

A project manager is updating the risk register after a risk event occurred. The risk response plan included a contingency reserve, but the actual impact was higher than expected. What should the project manager do next?

Accepted Answer

Update the issue log with the problem and its impact.. When a risk event actually occurs and its impact exceeds the planned contingency reserve, it transitions from a risk to an issue. The project manager should record it in the issue log with the problem and its impact so it can be actively managed, escalated, and tracked. This is the immediate next step before seeking additional funding or reassessing the schedule.

Answer

Request additional budget from the sponsor.

Answer

Close the risk in the risk register.

Answer

Perform a Monte Carlo simulation to reassess schedule risk.

Question 4

During risk management, a team identifies a risk with a 20% probability of occurrence and a potential cost impact of $50,000. What is the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of this risk?

Accepted Answer

$10,000. The Expected Monetary Value (EMV) is calculated by multiplying the probability of the risk by its potential financial impact. Here, the probability is 20% (0.20) and the impact is $50,000. Therefore, EMV = 0.20 × $50,000 = $10,000. This quantifies the risk in monetary terms for comparison and prioritization.

Answer

$50,000

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$40,000

Answer

$20,000

Question 5

A project is 60% complete. The original budget (BAC) is $200,000. Actual costs to date are $130,000, and the earned value is $120,000. What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the project will continue to perform at the current cost efficiency?

Accepted Answer

$216,667. EAC is calculated using the formula EAC = BAC / CPI when the project is expected to continue at the current cost efficiency. Here CPI = EV / AC = 120,000 / 130,000 = 0.9231, so EAC = 200,000 / 0.9231 = $216,667. This matches option A and reflects the cost overrun trend observed to date.

Answer

$250,000

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$200,000

Answer

$230,000

Question 6

Which TWO of the following are common types of organizational structures that affect project management?

Accepted Answer

Functional. Functional and matrix organizational structures are two of the three classic organizational structures (functional, matrix, and projectized) that directly influence how projects are managed, including authority levels, resource allocation, and communication paths. In a functional structure, team members report to a functional manager, and the project manager has limited authority. In a matrix structure, authority is shared between functional and project managers, creating a dual-reporting system that requires careful coordination.

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Agile

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Scrum

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Waterfall

Question 7

A project team is entering the Storming stage of Tuckman's model. Which TWO characteristics are typical of this stage?

Accepted Answer

Disagreements and competition among team members arise.. Option B is correct because the Storming stage of Tuckman's model is characterized by conflict, disagreements, and competition as team members assert their individual perspectives and jockey for position. Option E is correct because during Storming, members often test boundaries and may openly challenge the project manager's authority or leadership approach. Option A describes the Forming stage, where members are typically polite and conflict-avoidant. Option C describes the Performing stage, where the team operates efficiently and effectively. Option D describes the Norming stage, where the team establishes norms and ground rules.

Answer

Team members are polite and avoid conflict.

Answer

Team members work together efficiently and effectively.

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Team members establish norms and ground rules.

Question 8

A project manager has been authorized to lead a new customer-portal replacement effort. Before any detailed scheduling begins, the PM needs to formally document the measurable outcomes the portal must achieve, the boundaries of what will and will not be delivered, and the acceptance criteria the customer will use. Which document should the project manager produce FIRST to capture these items?

Accepted Answer

Project scope statement. Measurable objectives, deliverable descriptions, scope boundaries, and acceptance criteria are all components of the project scope statement, which is developed once the project is authorized. The charter authorizes and sets high-level direction, while a work breakdown schedule and a responsibility assignment matrix address timing and staffing. Because the PM must document what acceptance will look like, the scope statement is the correct artifact.

Answer

Project charter

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Work breakdown schedule

Answer

Responsibility assignment matrix

Question 9

A company is evaluating two projects. Project A has an NPV of $50,000 and a payback period of 3 years. Project B has an NPV of $40,000 and a payback period of 2 years. Which project should be selected based on NPV?

Accepted Answer

Project A because it has a higher NPV. NPV is a primary indicator of profitability. Higher NPV is better, regardless of payback period.

Answer

Neither project should be selected

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Project B because it has a shorter payback period

Answer

Both projects are equally good

Question 10

A project manager is closing a project. Which TWO activities should be performed during project closure? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

Obtain formal acceptance from the sponsor. Option B is correct because obtaining formal acceptance from the sponsor is a key project closure activity; the sponsor (or customer) must formally sign off that deliverables meet requirements, which is required before the project can be officially closed. Option E is correct because archiving project documents is part of closing the project; lessons learned, final reports, and project records are collected, indexed, and stored for future reference and organizational process assets. Option A is incorrect because the risk register is developed during project planning and updated throughout execution, not created at closure. Option C is incorrect because a feasibility study is performed during the pre-project or initiation phase to determine whether the project is viable. Option D is incorrect because the project charter is created during initiation to formally authorize the project, not during closure.

Answer

Develop the risk register

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Conduct feasibility study

Answer

Create the project charter

Question 11

During a sprint review, the team shows that they completed 30 story points this sprint, which is consistent with their average velocity. The product owner asks how much work the team can likely complete in the next two sprints. Using velocity, what is the best estimate?

Accepted Answer

60 story points. Velocity is the average amount of work (in story points) a team completes per sprint. If the team consistently completes 30 story points per sprint, then over two sprints the expected throughput is 30 × 2 = 60 story points. This is the standard velocity-based forecasting method in Agile.

Answer

30 story points

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90 story points

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45 story points

Question 12

A project manager is evaluating the cost performance of a project. Which TWO earned value metrics should be used to determine if the project is over budget?

Accepted Answer

Cost variance (CV). Cost variance (CV), option D, is the correct metric because it is calculated as EV minus AC and directly shows whether the project is over or under budget: a negative CV means the project is over budget. Cost performance index (CPI), option E, is also correct because it is calculated as EV divided by AC, and a CPI below 1.0 indicates the project is getting less value per dollar spent, i.e., over budget. By contrast, schedule variance (SV, option A) and schedule performance index (SPI, option C) measure schedule performance in terms of earned value versus planned value, not cost overruns. Estimate at completion (EAC, option B) forecasts the total expected cost at completion but does not by itself determine whether the project is currently over budget.

Answer

Schedule variance (SV)

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Estimate at completion (EAC)

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Schedule performance index (SPI)

Question 13

Which TWO of the following are typical activities in the Closing phase of a project?

Accepted Answer

Archive project documents. Option B (Archive project documents) is correct because the Closing phase includes finalizing and storing all project records, lessons learned, and artifacts in the organizational process assets repository so they can be referenced for future projects. Option D (Obtain formal acceptance of the final product) is correct because the Closing phase requires validating that deliverables meet requirements and securing the customer's or sponsor's sign-off before the project can be formally closed. Option A (Develop project charter) is incorrect because it belongs to the Initiating phase, where the project is authorized. Option C (Conduct procurements) is incorrect because it is a Planning/Executing activity for acquiring goods and services, not a Closing activity. Option E (Create the project schedule) is incorrect because it is a Planning process, not part of the Closing phase.

Answer

Develop project charter

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Conduct procurements

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Create the project schedule

Question 14

A project manager is monitoring project performance. Which TWO earned value metrics are used to assess cost efficiency?

Accepted Answer

Cost Variance (CV). Cost Variance (CV) is correct because it is calculated as EV minus AC (CV = EV − AC), and a positive value indicates the project is under budget while a negative value indicates overspending, directly measuring cost efficiency in absolute terms. Cost Performance Index (CPI) is correct because it is calculated as EV divided by AC (CPI = EV / AC), and a value greater than 1.0 means the project is getting more value per dollar spent, directly measuring cost efficiency as a ratio. The other options do not assess cost efficiency: Estimate at Completion (EAC) is a forecast of total project cost rather than an efficiency measure, Schedule Variance (SV) measures schedule performance as EV minus PV, and Schedule Performance Index (SPI) measures schedule efficiency as EV divided by PV.

Answer

Estimate at Completion (EAC)

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Schedule Variance (SV)

Answer

Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

Question 15

A project is in the Executing phase. The project manager needs to ensure effective communication with stakeholders. Which THREE elements should be included in the communications management plan? (Select THREE.)

Accepted Answer

Method or technology for communication. The communications management plan must specify the method or technology for communication (B), such as email, meetings, or a project management information system, because it defines the medium through which information is transmitted to stakeholders. It must also capture stakeholder communication requirements (C), since these identify who needs what information, in what format, and for what purpose, directly guiding the plan's content. Frequency of communication (E) is likewise essential, as it establishes when and how often information is distributed, ensuring timely and predictable stakeholder engagement. Options A and D are not correct: storage and retrieval of communications is a records-management concern typically addressed in the project records management or information management approach, and actual status report content is produced during reporting rather than being a planning element of the communications management plan.

Answer

Storage and retrieval of communications

Answer

Actual status report content