PK0-005 Practice Test 32 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A project team is developing a WBS. Which THREE of the following are characteristics of a well-constructed WBS?

Accepted Answer

It is deliverable-oriented. Option B is correct because a well-constructed WBS is deliverable-oriented, meaning it is organized around the project's outputs and deliverables rather than the activities or tasks used to produce them. Option D is correct because the WBS must be decomposed to a level where work packages are small enough to be reliably estimated, scheduled, monitored, and assigned to a responsible person or team. Option E is correct because the WBS must obey the 100% rule, capturing all project scope—including internal, external, and project management work—without adding anything outside the approved scope. Option A is incorrect because the project schedule is a separate artifact produced from the WBS and activity list, not a characteristic of the WBS itself. Option C is incorrect because an activity-oriented breakdown describes a task list or schedule network, whereas the WBS is deliberately deliverable-oriented.

Answer

It lists the project schedule

Answer

It is activity-oriented

Question 2

A project manager is leading a team in an organization where team members are assigned to multiple projects and report to both a functional manager and the project manager. The project manager has moderate authority over the team. Which organizational structure does this describe?

Accepted Answer

Balanced matrix. A balanced matrix organization gives the project manager moderate authority while functional managers retain control over resources and team members report to both. This dual reporting and shared authority is the defining characteristic of a balanced matrix, distinguishing it from functional (low PM authority) and strong matrix (high PM authority).

Answer

Functional

Answer

Strong matrix

Answer

Projectized

Question 3

A project has an issue where a key deliverable fails quality inspection. The project manager escalates to the project sponsor, but the issue remains unresolved. Which THREE actions should the project manager take according to issue management best practices?

Accepted Answer

Communicate with relevant stakeholders about the escalation. Option A is correct because issue management best practices require the project manager to keep relevant stakeholders informed about the escalation, ensuring transparency and enabling informed decisions. Option C is correct because every issue must be recorded in the issue log with its current status and, once resolved, the resolution date, providing an auditable trail and supporting monitoring. Option D is correct because when the project sponsor cannot resolve the escalated issue, the project manager must escalate further to higher management or the steering committee, which has the authority to remove the impediment. Option B is wrong because the issue is still unresolved, so closing it as resolved would be inaccurate and would hide the problem. Option E is wrong because ignoring the issue violates issue management best practices and allows the quality failure to persist.

Answer

Close the issue as resolved

Answer

Ignore the issue and move on

Question 4

A project is experiencing cost overruns. The project manager wants to calculate key earned value metrics. Which THREE metrics are needed to compute the cost performance index (CPI) and schedule performance index (SPI)? (Select three.)

Accepted Answer

Actual cost (AC). The three metrics needed to compute CPI and SPI are Actual cost (AC), Planned value (PV), and Earned value (EV). CPI is calculated as EV / AC, so both EV (option E) and AC (option C) are required to measure cost efficiency. SPI is calculated as EV / PV, so EV (option E) and PV (option D) are required to measure schedule efficiency. Together, EV, PV, and AC provide the core earned value inputs for both indices. Budget at completion (BAC, option A) is used for forecasting metrics such as EAC and TCPI, and Estimate at completion (EAC, option B) is itself a forecast derived from earned value data, so neither is needed to compute CPI or SPI directly.

Answer

Budget at completion (BAC)

Answer

Estimate at completion (EAC)

Question 5

A project manager is analyzing the critical path of a network diagram. Which TWO statements about the critical path are true?

Accepted Answer

Delaying a critical path activity delays the project.. Option A is correct because the critical path is defined as the sequence of activities with zero total float, so any delay to an activity on it directly pushes out the project finish date. Option E is correct because the critical path is, by definition, the longest-duration path through the network diagram, which determines the shortest possible project completion time. Option B is wrong because negative float indicates a schedule that is already behind its imposed deadline, not a normal property of critical path activities. Option C is wrong because critical path activities have zero float, not positive float; positive float belongs to non-critical activities. Option D is wrong because a network diagram can contain multiple critical paths when two or more sequences share the same longest duration.

Answer

Critical path activities can have negative float.

Answer

Activities on the critical path have positive float.

Answer

There can be only one critical path.

Question 6

A project is falling behind schedule. The project manager considers crashing or fast-tracking. Which THREE statements about these techniques are correct? (Select three.)

Accepted Answer

Both techniques are used to compress the schedule.. Option A is correct because both crashing and fast-tracking are schedule compression techniques used to shorten the project duration when a project is falling behind schedule. Option B is correct because crashing adds resources (people, equipment, overtime, or expediting) to critical path activities, which typically increases project cost. Option C is correct because fast-tracking overlaps activities that would normally be done sequentially, without necessarily adding resources. Option D is incorrect because crashing focuses on critical path activities, not non-critical path activities, since only critical path compression shortens the overall schedule. Option E is incorrect because fast-tracking usually increases risk due to overlapping activities and potential rework, rather than reducing risk.

Answer

Crashing focuses on non-critical path activities.

Answer

Fast-tracking reduces risk.

Question 7

A project manager is updating the risk register after identifying a new risk. Which TWO fields are typically included in a risk register? (Select TWO).

Accepted Answer

Response strategy. Option E (Risk ID) is correct because a risk register assigns each identified risk a unique identifier so it can be tracked, referenced, and cross-linked to other project documents throughout the project life cycle. Option D (Response strategy) is correct because the register documents the planned risk response (such as avoid, transfer, mitigate, or accept) along with the owner and actions to address the risk. Option A (Resource names) is not a standard risk register field; resource assignments belong in resource management or staffing plans, not the risk register. Option B (Budget) is a project cost baseline element rather than a typical risk register field, though risk-related contingency reserves may be noted separately. Option C (Issue description) is incorrect because issues are problems that have already occurred and are tracked in an issue log, whereas a risk register captures potential future risks and their descriptions.

Answer

Resource names

Answer

Budget

Answer

Issue description

Question 8

In which Tuckman stage do team members begin to resolve their differences, establish norms, and develop closer relationships?

Accepted Answer

Norming. In the Norming stage, team members resolve the conflicts that characterized Storming, agree on working norms, and begin to develop cohesion and trust. This is the stage where ground rules solidify and the team starts functioning as a cooperative unit rather than a collection of individuals.

Answer

Storming

Answer

Performing

Answer

Forming

Question 9

Which TWO of the following are components of a project charter?

Accepted Answer

Project purpose or justification. The project charter is a formal document that authorizes the project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources. It must include the project purpose or justification to explain why the project is being undertaken, and high-level risks to identify major uncertainties at the outset. These are foundational components defined by the PMBOK Guide for the Initiating process group.

Answer

Work breakdown structure

Answer

Resource calendars

Answer

Detailed project budget

Question 10

Which THREE are common types of project organizational structures? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Matrix. The three common project organizational structures are Functional, Matrix, and Projectized. Option E (Functional) is correct because in this structure staff are grouped by specialty (e.g., IT, finance) under functional managers, and the project manager has limited authority. Option A (Matrix) is correct because it blends functional and projectized structures, with team members reporting to both a functional manager and a project manager, and it can be weak, balanced, or strong depending on the project manager's authority. Option C (Projectized) is correct because in this structure the project manager has full authority over the team and resources, and team members are dedicated to the project. Options B (Flat) and D (Hierarchical) are not standard PMBOK project organizational structures; they describe broader organizational shapes or reporting layers rather than the recognized project management structures.

Answer

Flat

Answer

Hierarchical

Question 11

During project planning, the project manager wants to ensure that all work is defined and that no work is omitted. Which tool or technique should be used?

Accepted Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS). The work breakdown structure is the primary tool for ensuring all work is identified and organized.

Answer

Responsibility assignment matrix

Answer

Gantt chart

Answer

Network diagram

Question 12

A project manager is reviewing dependencies in the project schedule. Which THREE types of dependencies are recognized in project management? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Mandatory dependencies. Mandatory dependencies (A) are correct because they are dependencies required by the nature of the work itself, often dictated by legal, contractual, or physical requirements (e.g., you must pour the foundation before framing a house), and PMBOK recognizes them as a standard dependency type. Discretionary dependencies (C) are correct because they are dependencies established based on best practices, preferred sequencing, or project team judgment (also called preferred or soft logic), and they are explicitly recognized in project management. External dependencies (D) are correct because they involve relationships between project activities and activities outside the project's control, such as a vendor's delivery or a regulatory approval, which is a recognized dependency category. Technical constraints (B) and resource constraints (E) are not among the recognized dependency types in this classification; technical constraints describe limitations on how work is performed, and resource constraints relate to availability of people, equipment, or materials, both of which are constraint categories rather than dependency types.

Answer

Technical constraints

Answer

Resource constraints

Question 13

A project manager is assigned to a project in a matrix organization where the functional managers have significant control over team members. The PM has limited authority. This describes which type of matrix?

Accepted Answer

Weak matrix. In a weak matrix, the functional manager has more authority than the project manager.

Answer

Balanced matrix

Answer

Strong matrix

Answer

Projectized

Question 14

A project team is distributed across multiple time zones and the project manager is using virtual meetings. What is the most effective way to ensure clear communication?

Accepted Answer

Record meetings and share minutes. Recording meetings and sharing minutes ensures that all team members, regardless of time zone, have access to the same information asynchronously. This approach compensates for the lack of real-time attendance and provides a permanent reference that reduces misunderstandings. It is the most effective method for maintaining clear communication in a distributed, multi-timezone environment.

Answer

Use instant messaging for real-time queries

Answer

Use email for all updates

Answer

Require all team members to be online at the same time

Question 15

A project manager wants to visually represent the flow of tasks and decision points in a business process. Which tool should be used?

Accepted Answer

Flowchart. A flowchart is the correct tool because it is specifically designed to visually represent the sequence of tasks, decision points, and branching logic within a business process. Unlike other charts, flowcharts use standardized symbols (e.g., rectangles for processes, diamonds for decisions) to map out the flow of activities, making them ideal for process mapping and workflow analysis.

Answer

Pareto chart

Answer

Gantt chart

Answer

Scatter diagram