CAPM Timed Hard Questions — 25 Difficult Questions

Question 1

A project manager is performing risk response planning for a high-priority risk. The risk has a high probability and high impact. Which response strategy is most appropriate to reduce the probability and/or impact?

15 minute time limit — choose an answer to begin.

Accepted Answer

Mitigate. Mitigation is the risk response strategy that reduces the probability and/or impact of a risk to an acceptable level. For a high-probability, high-impact risk, mitigation is the most appropriate proactive response because it directly addresses the risk's likelihood or consequences through actions such as testing, redundancy, or process improvements.

Answer

Transfer

Answer

Accept

Answer

Avoid

Question 2

A project manager is evaluating the impact of a potential risk on project objectives. The risk has a probability of 0.3 and an impact of $50,000. What is the expected monetary value (EMV) of this risk?

Accepted Answer

$15,000. The expected monetary value (EMV) of a risk is calculated by multiplying the probability of the risk occurring by its potential impact. In this case, the probability is 0.3 and the impact is $50,000, so EMV = 0.3 × $50,000 = $15,000. This quantifies the average expected loss or gain from the risk, which is used in decision-making and contingency reserve planning.

Answer

$50,000

Answer

$150,000

Answer

$1,500

Question 3

A project has a critical path duration of 45 days. Activity X on the critical path can be crashed by 3 days at an additional cost of $500 per day. Activity Y, a non-critical activity with 10 days of float, can also be crashed by 3 days at $600 per day. The project manager wants to reduce the project duration by 3 days at minimum cost. What should the project manager do?

Accepted Answer

Crash Activity X by 3 days for $1,500. Crashing Activity X on the critical path directly reduces the project duration. Option B is wrong because crashing Activity Y does not reduce the overall project duration since it has float. Option C is wrong because crashing both is unnecessary and more expensive. Option D is wrong because crashing a non-critical activity does not affect the critical path.

Answer

Crash both activities by 3 days for $3,300

Answer

Crash Activity Y by 1 day for $600 and Activity X by 2 days for $1,000

Answer

Crash Activity Y by 3 days for $1,800

Question 4

A project manager is estimating activity durations for a software development project. The team has historical data from similar projects, but the current project involves new technology that could cause delays. Which estimating technique should the project manager use to account for uncertainty?

Accepted Answer

Three-point estimating. Three-point estimating (C) is correct because it explicitly accounts for uncertainty by using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates. The new technology introduces unknown risks, making the triangular or PERT distribution ideal for modeling the potential delay range.

Answer

Parametric estimating

Answer

Analogous estimating

Answer

Bottom-up estimating

Question 5

Which THREE factors should a business analyst consider when selecting an elicitation technique for a project?

Accepted Answer

Availability of stakeholders. A is correct because stakeholder availability directly impacts the feasibility of scheduling and conducting elicitation activities such as interviews, workshops, or focus groups. If key stakeholders are unavailable, the chosen technique may be impractical or yield incomplete information, making this a primary logistical consideration in technique selection.

Answer

Project manager's preference

Answer

Cost of the technique

Question 6

A team using Scrum has a velocity of 30 story points per Sprint. The Product Owner wants to plan for the next release with 150 story points of work remaining. The team is stable. Which release planning approach aligns with agile principles?

Accepted Answer

Plan the first Sprint in detail and forecast the rest using velocity.. It aligns with agile principles of iterative planning and empirical data: plan the first Sprint in detail based on the team's capacity and use velocity to forecast the remaining Sprints, acknowledging that estimates may change. Option B is incorrect because detailed schedules with buffers are a traditional, plan-driven approach. Option C is incorrect because committing to a fixed number of Sprints ignores variability and violates agile's embrace of change. Option D is incorrect because detailed planning for all Sprints upfront is wasteful and contradicts agile's just-in-time planning.

Answer

Create a detailed schedule with buffers.

Answer

Commit to delivering all 150 points in exactly 5 Sprints.

Answer

Plan work in detail for all 5 Sprints now.

Question 7

You are a project manager working on a large infrastructure project under a strong matrix organization. The project charter has been signed, and you have been given authority to manage the project. However, the functional manager of the engineering department is refusing to assign the promised resources, claiming that another project has higher priority. You have already held a meeting with the sponsor and functional manager, but the functional manager remains uncooperative. The sponsor is concerned about the project's viability. What is the most effective course of action?

Accepted Answer

Request the sponsor to reaffirm the project's priority and enforce resource allocation per the charter. In a strong matrix organization, the project manager shares authority with functional managers, and when resource conflicts cannot be resolved at the working level, the sponsor — who chartered the project and owns its priority — is the correct escalation point. The sponsor can reaffirm the project's priority and enforce the resource commitment documented in the charter, which is the most effective action given the functional manager's continued non-cooperation. Escalating to the PMO (Option B) is a valid but weaker step because the sponsor is already engaged and has the authority to resolve priority conflicts directly.

Answer

Contact the other project's manager to negotiate resource sharing directly

Answer

Formally document the issue and escalate to the PMO for resolution

Answer

Proceed with the project using available resources and adjust the schedule

Question 8

During a project, two team members have a conflict that is affecting progress. The project manager attempts to resolve it but fails. What is the next best action?

Accepted Answer

Escalate to the project sponsor. When a project manager cannot resolve a conflict that is affecting progress, the next best action is to escalate to the project sponsor, who has the authority to make decisions and remove impediments beyond the project manager's control. Escalation is a standard conflict resolution step when lower-level attempts fail.

Answer

Request guidance from the PMO

Answer

Reassign one team member to another project

Answer

Ask the team to resolve it themselves

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit. Which risk has the highest expected monetary value?

Accepted Answer

R2. Expected Monetary Value (EMV) is calculated as Probability × Impact. For R2, the probability is 0.5 and the impact is $100,000, yielding an EMV of $50,000. This is higher than R1 (0.3 × $100,000 = $30,000) and R3 (0.7 × $50,000 = $35,000). Therefore, R2 has the highest EMV.

Answer

R1

Answer

R3

Answer

All have equal EMV

Question 10

During project execution, a stakeholder requests a new feature that was not in the original scope. The project manager determines that the feature can be accommodated without affecting the critical path, but will increase costs. According to the predictive plan-based methodology, what should the project manager do NEXT?

Accepted Answer

Submit the change request to the change control board. In a predictive (plan-based) methodology, any change to the project scope, schedule, or cost must go through the formal Integrated Change Control process. Since the requested feature was not in the original scope and will increase costs, it constitutes a change request. The project manager's next step is to submit this change request to the Change Control Board (CCB), which is the designated body responsible for reviewing, approving, or rejecting changes that impact project baselines. The project manager does not have the authority to unilaterally approve changes that affect cost baselines, even if the critical path is unaffected.

Answer

Approve the change to improve stakeholder satisfaction

Answer

Inform the stakeholder that the change cannot be accepted

Answer

Update the project management plan to include the feature

Question 11

A project is experiencing scope creep because the BA did not properly manage requirements. What is the most likely root cause?

Accepted Answer

Poor change control process. Scope creep often results from a poor change control process that allows unauthorized changes. Option A is incorrect because inadequate requirements prioritization is not the root cause; scope creep occurs when changes are made without proper control. Option B is incorrect because lack of stakeholder identification can lead to missing requirements, but the root cause of scope creep is the lack of a formal change control process. Option D is incorrect because insufficient testing detects defects, but it does not directly cause scope creep.

Answer

Inadequate requirements prioritization

Answer

Lack of stakeholder identification

Answer

Insufficient testing

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit. If activity B is delayed by 2 days, what is the new total project duration?

Accepted Answer

17 days. The original project duration is 15 days, with the critical path being A→C→E→F. Activity B is on a path (B→D→F) that also has a duration of 15 days, meaning B has zero float. Therefore, a 2-day delay to B extends its path to 17 days, which becomes the new critical path. Hence, the new total project duration is 17 days.

Answer

16 days

Answer

19 days

Answer

15 days

Question 13

A large organization is implementing a new customer relationship management system. The business analysis team has identified that multiple departments have conflicting requirements due to differing processes. The project sponsor insists on using a predictive approach. Which business analysis framework should the team adopt to manage these conflicts effectively?

Accepted Answer

Disciplined Agile. Disciplined Agile (DA) is a hybrid framework that can be tailored to a predictive approach when the project sponsor insists on such. It provides a toolkit of practices and decision points to manage conflicting requirements through its process goals, making it suitable for this scenario. RUP is an iterative framework, not predictive, and is not part of the PMI-CAPM syllabus.

Answer

Scrum

Answer

Six Sigma

Answer

Rational Unified Process (RUP)

Question 14

Based on the exhibit, what is the critical path duration of the project?

Accepted Answer

12 days. The critical path is the longest path through the project network diagram, determining the shortest possible project duration. Based on the exhibit, Path A→B→E→G→H has a total duration of 2+3+4+2+1 = 12 days. Other paths, such as A→B→D→E (11 days) and A→C→F→H (10 days), are shorter. Therefore, 12 days is the correct critical path duration.

Answer

10 days

Answer

11 days

Answer

13 days

Question 15

A BA is validating requirements with the customer. The customer agrees the requirements meet their needs, but later during development, the customer realizes a gap. What is the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Inadequate verification. Verification ensures that the requirements are correctly specified and complete. In this scenario, the customer validated the requirements (they agreed they meet their needs), but a gap was found later during development. This gap indicates that the requirements were not fully and accurately documented or defined, which is a verification failure. Inadequate verification means the requirements were not properly checked for correctness and completeness before sign-off, leading to the gap. The customer's agreement shows validation was successful, but the underlying specifications were flawed.

Answer

Lack of traceability

Answer

Incorrect prioritization

Answer

Poor elicitation technique

Question 16

Based on the schedule network shown in the exhibit, what is the critical path?

Accepted Answer

A-B-C-D-E. The critical path is the longest path through the network. Path A-B-D-E takes 5+3+2+1=11 days. Path A-B-C-E takes 5+3+4+1=13 days. Path A-B-C-D-E takes 5+3+4+2+1=15 days. Path A-C-D-E takes 5+4+2+1=12 days. Since 15 days is the longest duration, the critical path is A-B-C-D-E, which corresponds to option C.

Answer

A-B-D-E

Answer

A-B-C-E

Answer

A-C-D-E

Question 17

An Agile team is experiencing frequent changes in requirements from stakeholders. Which approach best enables the team to adapt while maintaining productivity?

Accepted Answer

Maintain a prioritized product backlog and refine it regularly with stakeholders.. A prioritized product backlog with regular refinement allows the team to adapt to changes by reprioritizing work. Fixed scope (option C) and detailed upfront requirements (option B) are waterfall practices. Freezing the sprint backlog (option D) prevents necessary changes.

Answer

Create a detailed requirements document at the project start.

Answer

Define a fixed scope and use a change control board.

Answer

Freeze the sprint backlog at the start of each sprint.

Question 18

A business analyst is prioritizing requirements using the Kano model. A feature that provides delight when present but causes dissatisfaction when absent is classified as:

Accepted Answer

One-dimensional. In the Kano model, a feature that causes dissatisfaction when absent cannot be attractive because attractive features do not cause dissatisfaction when absent. One-dimensional (performance) features cause satisfaction when present and dissatisfaction when absent, which matches the description ("delight" is often used loosely for satisfaction). Thus, the correct classification is One-dimensional.

Answer

Must-be

Answer

Attractive

Answer

Indifferent

Question 19

A business analyst is verifying that all requirements have corresponding test cases. They find a requirement that has no linked test case. What should the BA do first?

Accepted Answer

Request a test case to be created for that requirement.. Request a test case to be created for that requirement. In business analysis, traceability ensures every requirement has a corresponding test case to verify it is implemented correctly. When a requirement lacks a test case, the BA should first request one to maintain coverage. Option A is incorrect because the project manager does not typically authorize test cases; the BA or QA team handles them. Option B is incorrect because ignoring the issue violates traceability best practices. Option D is incorrect because removing the requirement is premature without analysis; the BA should first try to create a test case.

Answer

Ask the project manager to approve the missing test.

Answer

Ignore it as it may not be critical.

Answer

Remove the requirement if it cannot be tested.

Question 20

Which THREE of the following are tools and techniques used in the Control Schedule process? (Select exactly 3.)

Accepted Answer

Performance reviews. Performance reviews (B) are a tool and technique in the Control Schedule process used to compare actual schedule performance against the baseline, often through earned value management (EVM) metrics like schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance index (SPI). This helps identify deviations and trigger corrective actions.

Answer

Rolling wave planning

Answer

Critical path method