CAPM Timed Hard Questions — 25 Difficult Questions

Question 1

A project manager is estimating activity durations for a software development project. The team has historical data from similar projects, but the current project involves new technology that could cause delays. Which estimating technique should the project manager use to account for uncertainty?

15 minute time limit — choose an answer to begin.

Accepted Answer

Three-point estimating. Three-point estimating (C) is correct because it explicitly accounts for uncertainty by using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates. The new technology introduces unknown risks, making the triangular or PERT distribution ideal for modeling the potential delay range.

Answer

Parametric estimating

Answer

Analogous estimating

Answer

Bottom-up estimating

Question 2

A business analyst is using a requirements management tool to store and track requirements. During a review, the BA notices that two stakeholders have conflicting requirements for the same system feature. What is the best approach to resolve this conflict?

Accepted Answer

Facilitate a meeting with both stakeholders to discuss and reach a consensus.. The business analyst's role includes facilitating stakeholder collaboration to resolve conflicts, ensuring that requirements are aligned with business needs. Using a requirements management tool to track conflicting requirements is insufficient; the BA must actively mediate a discussion to reach consensus, as this is a core competency in business analysis frameworks like the BABOK.

Answer

Choose the requirement from the stakeholder with higher authority.

Answer

Document both requirements and let the development team decide.

Answer

Escalate the conflict to the project sponsor immediately.

Question 3

A project has a critical path duration of 45 days. Activity X on the critical path can be crashed by 3 days at an additional cost of $500 per day. Activity Y, a non-critical activity with 10 days of float, can also be crashed by 3 days at $600 per day. The project manager wants to reduce the project duration by 3 days at minimum cost. What should the project manager do?

Accepted Answer

Crash Activity X by 3 days for $1,500. Crashing Activity X on the critical path directly reduces the project duration. Option B is wrong because crashing Activity Y does not reduce the overall project duration since it has float. Option C is wrong because crashing both is unnecessary and more expensive. Option D is wrong because crashing a non-critical activity does not affect the critical path.

Answer

Crash both activities by 3 days for $3,300

Answer

Crash Activity Y by 1 day for $600 and Activity X by 2 days for $1,000

Answer

Crash Activity Y by 3 days for $1,800

Question 4

Which TWO are core practices of Extreme Programming (XP)?

Accepted Answer

Test-driven development (TDD).. Test-driven development (TDD) (option B) and pair programming (option C) are core practices of Extreme Programming (XP). TDD involves writing automated tests before writing the code, and pair programming involves two programmers working together at one workstation. The other options are not XP core practices: Sprint review (A) is a Scrum ceremony, product backlog grooming (D) is a Scrum activity, and retrospectives (E) are also a Scrum event.

Answer

Sprint review.

Answer

Product backlog grooming.

Answer

Retrospectives.

Question 5

A project manager is estimating the duration of a task using parametric estimation. Historical data shows that a similar task took 10 hours per unit, and 50 units are required. The team's productivity is expected to be 20% slower due to new team members. What is the estimated duration?

Accepted Answer

600 hours. 10 hours/unit * 50 units = 500 hours. With 20% slower productivity, the total hours = 500 * 1.2 = 600 hours. Option A (400 hours) is wrong because it uses a 20% reduction instead of increase. Option B (550 hours) is wrong because it uses a factor of 1.1 or incorrect calculation. Option C (500 hours) is wrong because it does not account for the 20% slowdown.

Answer

400 hours

Answer

550 hours

Answer

500 hours

Question 6

In earned value management, if the Cost Performance Index (CPI) is 0.8 and the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is 1.2, what does this indicate?

Accepted Answer

The project is over budget and ahead of schedule.. A Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.8 is less than 1, indicating that the project is over budget (earned value is less than actual cost). A Schedule Performance Index (SPI) of 1.2 is greater than 1, indicating that the project is ahead of schedule (earned value exceeds planned value). Therefore, the project is over budget and ahead of schedule, which corresponds to option C.

Answer

The project is over budget and behind schedule.

Answer

The project is under budget and behind schedule.

Answer

The project is on budget and on schedule.

Question 7

A project manager is managing a complex IT project with many inter-dependencies. During execution, a key stakeholder requests a feature that will require rework of several completed deliverables. The project manager wants to minimize disruption to the project. What is the best course of action?

Accepted Answer

Follow the integrated change control process to assess impact. Following the integrated change control process allows the project manager to formally assess the impact of the change on scope, schedule, cost, and quality before making a decision. This minimizes disruption by ensuring that changes are evaluated and approved through a structured process. Option A is incorrect because delegating to the CCB without analysis may bypass necessary impact assessment. Option C is incorrect because implementing immediately bypasses evaluation and risks significant disruption. Option D is incorrect because refusing without analysis ignores the possibility of a beneficial change and may damage stakeholder relationships.

Answer

Delegate the decision to the change control board (CCB)

Answer

Implement the change immediately to satisfy the stakeholder

Answer

Refuse the request as it will cause rework

Question 8

You are a project manager working on a large infrastructure project under a strong matrix organization. The project charter has been signed, and you have been given authority to manage the project. However, the functional manager of the engineering department is refusing to assign the promised resources, claiming that another project has higher priority. You have already held a meeting with the sponsor and functional manager, but the functional manager remains uncooperative. The sponsor is concerned about the project's viability. What is the most effective course of action?

Accepted Answer

Request the sponsor to reaffirm the project's priority and enforce resource allocation per the charter. In a strong matrix, the project manager has significant authority, but functional managers still control resources. The best action is to refer to the project charter and sponsor to enforce resource commitments. Option A is too adversarial. Option B is premature rescheduling. Option D undermines the project manager's authority.

Answer

Contact the other project's manager to negotiate resource sharing directly

Answer

Formally document the issue and escalate to the PMO for resolution

Answer

Proceed with the project using available resources and adjust the schedule

Question 9

During a project, two team members have a conflict that is affecting progress. The project manager attempts to resolve it but fails. What is the next best action?

Accepted Answer

Escalate to the project sponsor. Escalate to the project sponsor. When the project manager cannot resolve a conflict, escalation to the sponsor is appropriate because the sponsor has authority over project decisions and can help resolve the issue. Option A is incorrect because the PMO provides guidance and standards but typically lacks direct authority over team conflicts. Option B is incorrect because reassigning a team member is a drastic measure that should only be considered after other resolution attempts have failed. Option D is incorrect because if the project manager's attempt failed, asking the team to resolve it themselves is unlikely to succeed and may exacerbate the situation.

Answer

Request guidance from the PMO

Answer

Reassign one team member to another project

Answer

Ask the team to resolve it themselves

Question 10

Refer to the exhibit. Which risk has the highest expected monetary value?

Accepted Answer

R2. EMV for R1 = 0.3 * $40,000 = $12,000; R2 = 0.6 * $50,000 = $30,000; R3 = 0.2 * $100,000 = $20,000. R2 has the highest EMV.

Answer

R1

Answer

R3

Answer

All have equal EMV

Question 11

A business analyst is reviewing the output of a requirements validation session. The following issues were identified: 'Requirement REQ-001 has no associated business objective', 'Requirement REQ-002 has a conflicting priority with REQ-003'. What is the most likely cause of these issues?

Accepted Answer

The requirements traceability matrix was not properly maintained.. The requirements traceability matrix (RTM) is a tool used to ensure that each requirement is linked to a business objective and that dependencies and conflicts are identified. The issues described—missing links and conflicting priorities—are typical signs of a poorly maintained RTM. Option D correctly identifies this cause. Option A is incorrect because scope statement incompleteness might cause missing requirements, but not specifically the linkage issues. Option B is incorrect because the requirements management plan dictates processes, but the specific tool (RTM) is the issue. Option C is incorrect because templates provide structure, but not maintenance.

Answer

The project scope statement is incomplete.

Answer

The requirements management plan was not followed.

Answer

The business analyst did not use a standard template.

Question 12

Which THREE are techniques used for estimating activity durations?

Accepted Answer

Three-point estimating. The correct techniques for estimating activity durations are three-point estimating (A), parametric estimating (B), and analogous estimating (E). Three-point estimating uses optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates. Parametric estimating uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables. Analogous estimating uses values from previous similar projects. Reserve analysis (C) is used for contingency reserves, not for estimating durations. Monte Carlo simulation (D) is a risk analysis technique.

Answer

Reserve analysis

Answer

Monte Carlo simulation

Question 13

Based on the exhibit, which risk should the project manager prioritize for proactive response?

Accepted Answer

R001. Risk R001 has the highest risk score (0.56), indicating the highest priority for proactive response. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: R002 and R003 have lower risk scores, and D is wrong because risks do not have equal priority; the one with the highest score should be addressed first.

Answer

R002

Answer

R003

Answer

All risks have equal priority.

Question 14

A construction project manager, Maria, is overseeing the building of a bridge. The project has a fixed budget and schedule. During the execution phase, the quality audit reveals that the concrete used does not meet the specified strength requirements. The concrete supplier insists that the concrete meets industry standards. However, the project specifications require a higher strength grade. Maria must decide on corrective action. What should she do?

Accepted Answer

Stop work and request the supplier to provide concrete that meets the project specifications.. The project specifications are the authoritative requirements. Non-conforming material must be rejected to ensure safety and quality. Maria should stop work and require the supplier to provide concrete that meets the project specifications. Option D is correct. Option A (document and proceed) ignores the issue. Option B (revise specifications) is inappropriate as the specifications were established based on design requirements. Option C (accepting the concrete) violates specifications.

Answer

Document the situation in the issue log and proceed with construction.

Answer

Revise the project specifications to match the delivered concrete's strength.

Answer

Accept the concrete as is because it meets industry standards.

Question 15

A team is struggling with frequent requirement changes during a Sprint. The Product Owner keeps adding new items. What should the Scrum Master do?

Accepted Answer

Remind the Product Owner that once a Sprint is planned, no changes are allowed that endanger the Sprint Goal, and help them hold off until the next Sprint.. Once a Sprint is planned, the Product Owner should not add items that would endanger the Sprint Goal. The Scrum Master's role is to protect the Sprint and guide the Product Owner to defer changes to future Sprints. Option A is incorrect because blindly accepting changes disrupts the Sprint. Option B is incorrect because asking the team to work overtime is unsustainable and violates the principle of sustainable pace. Option C is incorrect because increasing the Sprint length breaks the timebox and does not address the root cause.

Answer

Accept the changes as the Product Owner is the voice of the customer.

Answer

Ask the team to work overtime to include the new items.

Answer

Increase the Sprint length to accommodate changes.

Question 16

A project manager is evaluating a project governance policy in a predictive plan-based methodology. The policy states: Deny changes to project requirements unless the requester is a member of the Change Control Board (CCB). What effect does this policy have?

Accepted Answer

Denies changes from anyone except members of the Change Control Board.. The policy denies a change to project requirements when the requester is NOT a member of the CCB. Thus, it denies changes from anyone outside the CCB, meaning it effectively allows changes only from CCB members. However, the policy is denial-based, not allowance-based, so the correct description is that it denies changes from all except CCB members.

Answer

Denies changes from members of the Change Control Board.

Answer

Allows changes only from members of the Change Control Board.

Answer

Allows changes from any requester.

Question 17

A team using Scrum has a velocity of 30 story points per Sprint. The Product Owner wants to plan for the next release with 150 story points of work remaining. The team is stable. Which release planning approach aligns with agile principles?

Accepted Answer

Plan the first Sprint in detail and forecast the rest using velocity.. It aligns with agile principles of iterative planning and empirical data: plan the first Sprint in detail based on the team's capacity and use velocity to forecast the remaining Sprints, acknowledging that estimates may change. Option B is incorrect because detailed schedules with buffers are a traditional, plan-driven approach. Option C is incorrect because committing to a fixed number of Sprints ignores variability and violates agile's embrace of change. Option D is incorrect because detailed planning for all Sprints upfront is wasteful and contradicts agile's just-in-time planning.

Answer

Create a detailed schedule with buffers.

Answer

Commit to delivering all 150 points in exactly 5 Sprints.

Answer

Plan work in detail for all 5 Sprints now.

Question 18

Refer to the exhibit. What is the total float of activity C?

Accepted Answer

0 days. Activity C has a total float of 0 days because it lies on the critical path. In the network diagram, the critical path is the longest path through the project, and any delay on a critical path activity directly delays the project end date. Since activity C is on the critical path, its total float is zero.

Answer

2 days

Answer

3 days

Answer

1 day

Question 19

Which THREE of the following are commonly used techniques for requirements elicitation?

Accepted Answer

Interviews. Interviews are a direct, one-on-one technique used to elicit requirements from stakeholders by asking structured or unstructured questions. They allow the business analyst to probe deeply into stakeholder needs, clarify ambiguities, and uncover implicit requirements that might not surface in group settings.

Answer

Earned value management

Answer

SWOT analysis

Question 20

A business analyst is prioritizing requirements using the Kano model. A feature that provides delight when present but causes dissatisfaction when absent is classified as:

Accepted Answer

One-dimensional. In the Kano model, a feature that causes dissatisfaction when absent cannot be attractive because attractive features do not cause dissatisfaction when absent. One-dimensional (performance) features cause satisfaction when present and dissatisfaction when absent, which matches the description ("delight" is often used loosely for satisfaction). Thus, the correct classification is One-dimensional.

Answer

Must-be

Answer

Attractive

Answer

Indifferent