CAPM Practice Test 4 — 10 Questions

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit. Which risk has the highest expected monetary value?

Accepted Answer

R2. EMV for R1 = 0.3 * $40,000 = $12,000; R2 = 0.6 * $50,000 = $30,000; R3 = 0.2 * $100,000 = $20,000. R2 has the highest EMV.

Answer

R1

Answer

R3

Answer

All have equal EMV

Question 2

A business analyst is reviewing the output of a requirements validation session. The following issues were identified: 'Requirement REQ-001 has no associated business objective', 'Requirement REQ-002 has a conflicting priority with REQ-003'. What is the most likely cause of these issues?

Accepted Answer

The requirements traceability matrix was not properly maintained.. The requirements traceability matrix (RTM) is a tool used to ensure that each requirement is linked to a business objective and that dependencies and conflicts are identified. The issues described—missing links and conflicting priorities—are typical signs of a poorly maintained RTM. Option D correctly identifies this cause. Option A is incorrect because scope statement incompleteness might cause missing requirements, but not specifically the linkage issues. Option B is incorrect because the requirements management plan dictates processes, but the specific tool (RTM) is the issue. Option C is incorrect because templates provide structure, but not maintenance.

Answer

The project scope statement is incomplete.

Answer

The requirements management plan was not followed.

Answer

The business analyst did not use a standard template.

Question 3

Which THREE are techniques used for estimating activity durations?

Accepted Answer

Three-point estimating. The correct techniques for estimating activity durations are three-point estimating (A), parametric estimating (B), and analogous estimating (E). Three-point estimating uses optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates. Parametric estimating uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables. Analogous estimating uses values from previous similar projects. Reserve analysis (C) is used for contingency reserves, not for estimating durations. Monte Carlo simulation (D) is a risk analysis technique.

Answer

Reserve analysis

Answer

Monte Carlo simulation

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit. A business analyst is developing a requirements traceability matrix (RTM) for a project. Based on the RTM excerpt shown, which statement is correct?

Accepted Answer

The RTM ensures that every business requirement maps to a functional requirement.. In a requirements traceability matrix, one of the key purposes is to ensure that higher-level requirements (business requirements) are mapped to lower-level requirements (functional requirements) to verify coverage. Option A is incorrect because test case links are not necessarily present in all RTMs; some may only show requirements relationships. Option B is incorrect because forward traceability typically goes from source to derived, but the RTM in the exhibit shows mapping from business to functional requirements. Option D is incorrect because RTMs often include non-functional requirements as well.

Answer

All requirements are linked to at least one test case.

Answer

The RTM shows forward traceability from requirements to design.

Answer

The RTM includes only functional requirements.

Question 5

Based on the exhibit, which risk should the project manager prioritize for proactive response?

Accepted Answer

R001. Risk R001 has the highest risk score (0.56), indicating the highest priority for proactive response. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: R002 and R003 have lower risk scores, and D is wrong because risks do not have equal priority; the one with the highest score should be addressed first.

Answer

R002

Answer

R003

Answer

All risks have equal priority.

Question 6

A project manager is using a predictive approach to manage a project. During the execution phase, the team is working on deliverables. Which process group involves tracking, reviewing, and regulating progress against the plan?

Accepted Answer

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group involves tracking, reviewing, and regulating progress against the plan. Option A is correct because this process group ensures that project objectives are met by measuring performance and applying corrective actions. The Planning Process Group (B) establishes the scope and plan; the Executing Process Group (C) involves completing the work; and the Initiating Process Group (D) defines the project. Therefore, only Monitoring and Controlling fits the described activities.

Answer

Planning Process Group

Answer

Executing Process Group

Answer

Initiating Process Group

Question 7

Based on the exhibit, what is the most significant risk for the upcoming iteration?

Accepted Answer

The team is overcommitting based on historical velocity data.. The exhibit shows a planned velocity of 30 story points per iteration, but historical velocity averages 21 story points. This mismatch means the team is overcommitting, which will likely lead to unfinished work and reduced quality. In Agile, using historical velocity as a baseline is critical for realistic iteration planning.

Answer

The product backlog may have scope creep from new requirements.

Answer

The team's velocity is dropping, indicating a need to add more team members.

Answer

The team's velocity is trending upward, so the plan is realistic.

Question 8

A project manager in a predictive manufacturing project needs to procure a specialized component. The procurement process requires a detailed statement of work (SOW) and firm fixed price (FFP) contract. What should the project manager create first?

Accepted Answer

Create the procurement management plan.. According to the PMBOK Guide, the procurement management plan is the first document created in the procurement process. It defines how procurement will be managed, including procedures for developing the statement of work (SOW), conducting make-or-buy analysis, selecting contract types (such as FFP), and managing seller relationships. Without this plan, subsequent procurement activities lack guidance. Option A (developing SOW) occurs after the plan is established. Option B (make-or-buy analysis) is part of planning but is typically conducted during the development of the procurement management plan. Option C (drafting the contract) happens after seller selection, which follows the plan and SOW creation. Therefore, the procurement management plan must be created first to set the framework for all procurement activities.

Answer

Develop the procurement statement of work (SOW).

Answer

Conduct a make-or-buy analysis.

Answer

Draft the contract with the selected seller.

Question 9

During project planning, the team identifies that a task has a duration of 10 days, a predecessor finish-to-start relationship, and a lag of 2 days. What is the earliest the successor task can start if the predecessor starts on day 1?

Accepted Answer

Day 12. The predecessor starts on day 1 and has a duration of 10 days, so its early finish is day 10 (assuming no gaps). With a finish-to-start relationship and a lag of 2 days, the successor's early start is the predecessor's early finish plus the lag: 10 + 2 = 12. Therefore, the earliest the successor can start is day 12.

Answer

Day 11

Answer

Day 10

Answer

Day 13

Question 10

Which TWO statements about the Sprint Backlog are true? (Select TWO)

Accepted Answer

It is created during Sprint Planning.. Options B and C are correct. The Sprint Backlog is created during Sprint Planning (B) and includes tasks decomposed from user stories (C). Option A is false because the Sprint Backlog is not just a subset; it includes the plan for delivery. Option D is false because the Sprint Backlog is owned by the Development Team, not the Product Owner. Option E is false because the Sprint Backlog can be changed during the Sprint by the Development Team as needed.

Answer

It is a subset of the Product Backlog.

Answer

It is owned by the Product Owner.

Answer

It cannot be changed during the Sprint.