FC0-U71 Multiple Select — 60 Questions

Question 1

A developer is writing pseudocode for a program that calculates the average of a list of numbers. Which THREE of the following are valid components that would likely appear in the pseudocode? (Select THREE.)

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

Initialize sum to 0. Initializing a variable (like sum) to a starting value (0) is a fundamental step in accumulation algorithms. Without this initialization, the sum would contain an undefined or garbage value, leading to incorrect results. This is a standard practice in pseudocode and real programming languages alike.

Answer

Define a class named Calculator

Answer

Execute SQL query to retrieve numbers from database

Question 2

Which of the following are advantages of using a cloud database service (DBaaS) compared to an on-premises database? (Select TWO.)

Accepted Answer

Managed maintenance and updates. DBaaS provides managed maintenance and automatic scalability without hardware management. High availability is inherent, and initial cost is lower (pay-as-you-go).

Answer

Full control over underlying hardware

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Requires dedicated IT staff for database administration

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Higher initial capital expenditure

Question 3

Which TWO factors should be considered when choosing a software license?

Accepted Answer

Number of users. Option C (Number of users) is correct because software licenses are frequently priced and scoped per-seat, per-device, or per-concurrent-user, so the count of users directly determines which license tier or volume agreement is required. Option E (Cost) is correct because licensing cost is a primary procurement factor, encompassing the purchase price, subscription or maintenance fees, and total cost of ownership that must fit the organization's budget. The remaining options do not belong: brand name (A) is a marketing consideration rather than a licensing term, font style (B) and interface color (D) are cosmetic design attributes unrelated to license rights, restrictions, or pricing.

Answer

Brand name

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Font style

Answer

Color of interface

Question 4

A technician is explaining the difference between volatile and non-volatile memory to a trainee. Which TWO of the following are examples of volatile memory? (Select TWO.)

Accepted Answer

DDR4 RAM. Volatile memory loses data when power is off. RAM (including DDR4 and DDR5) and cache memory (L1/L2/L3) are volatile. ROM and SSDs are non-volatile.

Answer

ROM

Answer

BIOS firmware

Answer

SSD

Question 5

Which TWO of the following are types of malware? (Select TWO)

Accepted Answer

Ransomware. Ransomware (B) is a type of malware that encrypts a victim's files or locks a system and demands payment for restoration, making it a classic malicious software category. Spyware (E) is also malware, designed to covertly monitor user activity and harvest sensitive information such as credentials or browsing habits. A firewall (A) is a security control that filters network traffic, not malware. Encryption (C) is a legitimate cryptographic technique for protecting data confidentiality, not malicious software. Phishing (D) is a social-engineering attack that tricks users into revealing information, but it is an attack method rather than a malware type.

Answer

Firewall

Answer

Encryption

Answer

Phishing

Question 6

Which THREE of the following are examples of social engineering attacks?

Accepted Answer

Tailgating. Tailgating (C) is a social engineering attack because it relies on manipulating a person's courtesy or trust to physically follow an authorized individual through a secure door or access point without presenting credentials. Phishing (D) is a social engineering attack that uses deceptive emails, messages, or websites to trick users into revealing credentials or clicking malicious links. Shoulder surfing (E) is a social engineering attack in which an attacker visually observes someone entering passwords, PINs, or other sensitive data in a public or shared space. Adware (A) is a type of unwanted software that displays advertisements and is classified as malware or a PUP, not a social engineering technique. Spoofing (B) is a technical impersonation technique, such as IP, MAC, or email spoofing, and while it can support social engineering, it is not itself an example of a social engineering attack.

Answer

Adware

Answer

Spoofing

Question 7

Which THREE are valid primitive data types in most programming languages? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Character. Character (B), Boolean (C), and Integer (D) are all primitive data types because they represent single, indivisible values directly supported by the language's type system: a character holds one text symbol (e.g., char in C/Java), a Boolean holds true/false, and an integer holds a whole number. These types are typically built into the language and stored as simple values rather than as composite structures. In contrast, String (A) is generally a composite or reference type (e.g., a sequence of characters, such as java.lang.String), and Array (E) is a derived/aggregate data structure that holds multiple elements, so neither qualifies as primitive.

Answer

String

Answer

Array

Question 8

Which TWO concerns are most critical when selecting a backup method? (Select exactly two.)

Accepted Answer

Recovery time objective. Recovery time objective (RTO) is critical because it defines the maximum acceptable downtime after a failure, directly influencing the choice of backup method (e.g., full vs. incremental) and storage medium (e.g., local disk vs. cloud). A shorter RTO requires faster restoration, often necessitating more frequent backups or technologies like snapshots or replication.

Answer

Network topology

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Display resolution

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Operating system version

Question 9

A developer is debugging a program that is producing incorrect output. Which of the following are common debugging techniques? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Using a debugger. Using a debugger (A) is a core debugging technique because it lets the developer set breakpoints, step through execution line by line, inspect variables and the call stack, and observe the program's state at the exact point where output diverges from expectations. Code review (B) is also a common debugging technique: a careful reading of the source, often by a second developer, can reveal logic errors, off-by-one mistakes, incorrect conditionals, or misuse of APIs that cause incorrect output. Adding print statements (C) is a classic and widely used technique, inserting temporary logging at key points to trace variable values and control flow and thereby localize the faulty logic. Reinstalling the operating system (D) is not a debugging technique for a program producing wrong output; it is a drastic system-recovery action that would not address a logic or coding defect. Changing the program requirements (E) is not debugging either, since debugging means finding and fixing the defect in the code, not redefining what the program is supposed to do.

Answer

Reinstalling the operating system

Answer

Changing the program requirements

Question 10

A database administrator is designing a normalized database for an e-commerce site. Which TWO actions represent best practices for normalization?

Accepted Answer

Removing duplicate data from tables by creating separate tables for each entity. Option C is correct because normalization's core goal is eliminating redundant data by decomposing entities into their own tables, which reduces update, insert, and delete anomalies. Option D is correct because splitting customer data into a Customers table and an Orders table and linking them with a foreign key enforces referential integrity and models the one-to-many relationship properly, which is a standard normalization practice (e.g., achieving 2NF/3NF). Option A is wrong because creating separate order tables without linking them destroys the relationships between customers and orders and prevents meaningful queries. Option B is wrong because storing product details as a list in a single column violates first normal form (atomic values) and makes querying and updating impractical. Option E is wrong because storing calculated totals in the same table introduces derived/redundant data that can become inconsistent, and normalization typically avoids persisting computed values.

Answer

Creating separate tables for each customer order without linking them

Answer

Storing all product details in a single column as a list

Answer

Storing calculated totals in the same table to avoid joins

Question 11

A network administrator is designing a new office network. Which THREE factors should be considered when choosing between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz Wi-Fi bands?

Accepted Answer

Speed. Option B (Speed) is correct because the 5 GHz band offers wider channels (up to 80/160 MHz) and higher throughput than the narrower 2.4 GHz channels, making data rate a key decision factor. Option C (Interference) is correct because 2.4 GHz is crowded by overlapping channels, Bluetooth, microwaves, and neighboring APs, while 5 GHz has many more non-overlapping channels and thus less interference. Option E (Range) is correct because 2.4 GHz signals penetrate walls and travel farther due to longer wavelengths, whereas 5 GHz has shorter range, so coverage requirements must guide band selection. Option A (Cellular compatibility) is not a Wi-Fi band selection factor since cellular operates on licensed spectrum independent of 2.4/5 GHz WLAN design. Option D (Number of devices) is not a direct differentiator between the bands, as client capacity depends more on AP density, channel width, and airtime than on the band itself.

Answer

Cellular compatibility

Answer

Number of devices

Question 12

Which TWO of the following are recommended practices for physical security in an office environment? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

Locking computer screens when leaving the desk. Option A is correct because locking the screen when leaving a desk prevents unauthorized individuals from accessing the system and data in the user's absence, which is a fundamental physical-access control in an office. Option D is correct because shredding documents containing sensitive information before disposal prevents dumpster-diving attacks and unauthorized recovery of confidential data, aligning with secure media disposal practices. Option B is not recommended because writing passwords on sticky notes exposes credentials to anyone who can physically see the monitor, defeating authentication controls. Option C is not recommended because sharing access badges breaks individual accountability and allows unauthorized entry under someone else's identity. Option E is not recommended because propping doors open bypasses physical access controls and enables tailgating or unauthorized entry into restricted areas.

Answer

Writing passwords on sticky notes and attaching them to monitors

Answer

Sharing access badges with colleagues

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Leaving doors propped open for convenience

Question 13

A database administrator needs to choose a database for an e-commerce application that requires high availability and automatic scaling. Which TWO options are cloud database services?

Accepted Answer

Google Cloud SQL. Google Cloud SQL (B) is a fully managed, cloud-hosted relational database service on Google Cloud Platform that supports MySQL, PostgreSQL, and SQL Server, making it a cloud database service suitable for high availability and scaling needs. Amazon RDS (E) is AWS's managed relational database service that automates provisioning, patching, backups, and Multi-AZ failover, directly matching the e-commerce requirement for high availability and automatic scaling. By contrast, SQLite (A) is an embedded, serverless file-based library, not a cloud service. Microsoft SQL Server Express (C) is a free on-premises edition of SQL Server with size and resource limits, and MySQL Community Edition (D) is a self-managed open-source database typically deployed on your own infrastructure, so neither is a managed cloud database service.

Answer

SQLite

Answer

Microsoft SQL Server Express

Answer

MySQL Community Edition

Question 14

Which TWO of the following are effective measures to protect against ransomware attacks? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

Installing the latest software updates and patches. Option B is correct because installing the latest software updates and patches closes known vulnerabilities (e.g., SMBv1/EternalBlue, RDP flaws) that ransomware such as WannaCry and NotPetya exploit to gain initial access and propagate laterally. Option D is correct because regularly backing up important files—ideally following the 3-2-1 rule with offline or immutable copies—allows restoration of data without paying a ransom, neutralizing the extortion leverage even if encryption occurs. Option A is wrong because reusing the same password across accounts enables credential-stuffing and lateral movement, dramatically increasing ransomware blast radius rather than protecting against it. Option C is wrong because disabling the firewall removes network traffic filtering and exposes hosts and services to scanning, exploitation, and command-and-control communication. Option E is wrong because opening attachments from unknown senders is a primary ransomware delivery vector via malicious macros, executables, or exploit-laden documents.

Answer

Using the same password for all accounts

Answer

Disabling the firewall

Answer

Opening email attachments from unknown senders

Question 15

Which TWO of the following are advantages of using a virtual private network (VPN) for remote employees?

Accepted Answer

Provides encrypted communication. Option B is correct because a VPN creates an encrypted tunnel (typically using protocols such as IPsec, TLS, or WireGuard) between the remote employee's device and the corporate network, protecting data in transit from eavesdropping on untrusted networks like public Wi-Fi. Option C is correct because a VPN extends the corporate network to the remote user, allowing them to reach internal resources such as file servers, intranet sites, and internal applications as if they were on-site. Option A is incorrect because a VPN secures transmission but does not detect or remove malware, so endpoint antivirus is still required. Option D is incorrect because VPNs are a software/connectivity solution and do not inherently reduce hardware costs. Option E is incorrect because encryption and tunneling overhead typically reduce, not increase, effective bandwidth.

Answer

Eliminates need for antivirus software

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Reduces hardware costs

Answer

Increases network bandwidth

Question 16

Which TWO of the following are common file formats for images?

Accepted Answer

PNG. PNG (B) is a correct answer because it is a raster image format that uses lossless compression and supports transparency, making it a standard format for web graphics and screenshots. JPEG (E) is also correct because it is a widely used raster image format that applies lossy compression, ideal for photographs and continuous-tone images. The other options do not belong: PDF (A) is a document format for page layout and text/vector content, TXT (C) is a plain-text format, and MP3 (D) is a compressed audio format.

Answer

PDF

Answer

TXT

Answer

MP3

Question 17

Which THREE of the following are advantages of using a cloud database service (DBaaS) over an on-premises database? (Select THREE.)

Accepted Answer

No need to manage physical hardware. Option A is correct because a DBaaS provider owns and operates the underlying physical servers, storage, and networking, so the customer is freed from hardware procurement, racking, cabling, and maintenance tasks. Option B is correct because DBaaS platforms typically include managed automated backups, point-in-time recovery, and cross-region replication or failover as built-in features, reducing the administrative burden of designing and testing a DR strategy. Option D is correct because DBaaS offerings commonly provide elastic scaling of compute, storage, and IOPS—often automatically or via simple configuration changes—to match changing workload demand without manual capacity planning. Option C is not correct because latency depends on network distance and topology; a cloud database can be slower than a local on-premises database when the application and data are geographically separated. Option E is not correct because DBaaS abstracts the operating system away from the customer, who generally has little or no OS-level access, unlike on-premises deployments where full OS control is retained.

Answer

Lower latency than on-premises in all cases

Answer

Full control over the operating system

Question 18

Which TWO of the following are examples of multi-factor authentication?

Accepted Answer

A smart card and a PIN. It combines two distinct authentication factors: something you have (the smart card) and something you know (the PIN), which is the definition of multi-factor authentication. Option C (a password and a fingerprint scan) is also correct because it pairs something you know (the password) with something you are (the fingerprint biometric), satisfying MFA's requirement for different factor categories. Option B (two different passwords) is not MFA because both are the same factor type—something you know—so it is merely multi-instance, not multi-factor. Option D (a username and a password) is not MFA because a username is an identifier, not an authentication factor, and the password alone represents a single factor. Option E (a password and a security question) is not MFA because both are knowledge-based factors (something you know), so they belong to the same factor category.

Answer

Two different passwords

Answer

A username and a password

Answer

A password and a security question

Question 19

Which TWO of the following are examples of open-source software licenses?

Accepted Answer

GNU GPL. The GNU GPL (B) is a canonical open-source license: it grants users the freedom to run, study, share, and modify the software, and its copyleft provision requires derivative works to be distributed under the same license terms. The MIT License (C) is also a permissive open-source license that allows reuse, modification, and redistribution with minimal conditions, typically just preserving the copyright notice and license text. By contrast, the Apple App Store License (A), Microsoft EULA (D), and Adobe EULA (E) are proprietary end-user license agreements that restrict copying, modification, and redistribution, so they are not open-source licenses.

Answer

Apple App Store License

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Microsoft EULA

Answer

Adobe EULA

Question 20

Which TWO of the following are common causes of errors when executing a SELECT query? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Incorrect column name. Option B (Incorrect column name) is correct because a SELECT statement referencing a column that does not exist in the target table will fail with an error such as 'Unknown column' in MySQL or 'Invalid column name' in SQL Server, since the parser cannot resolve the identifier against the table's schema. Option D (Missing table name) is correct because a SELECT query must specify a FROM clause with a valid table (or equivalent source); omitting it or naming a nonexistent table produces errors like 'No tables used' or 'Table doesn't exist'. Option A (Table is too large) is not a cause of query errors—large tables may affect performance, but the query still executes correctly. Option C (Index is missing) is not an error cause either; a missing index only slows execution, and the query returns correct results via a full scan. Option E (Network is slow) is unrelated to query correctness—it may cause timeouts or latency but does not itself make a SELECT statement erroneous.

Answer

Table is too large

Answer

Index is missing

Answer

Network is slow