CISSP Security Architecture and Engineering — Timed 10 Questions

Question 1

An organization is implementing a PKI for internal use. To ensure that certificate revocation status is checked in real-time without relying on periodic CRL downloads, which mechanism should be used?

Accepted Answer

OCSP stapling. The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is a protocol used for obtaining the revocation status of an X.509 digital certificate in real-time. It was created as an alternative to Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), specifically addressing the overhead and latency issues of downloading large CRL files periodically.

Answer

CT logs

Answer

Certificate pinning

Answer

CRL distribution points

Question 2

A financial institution is implementing a Clark-Wilson integrity model. Which THREE components are essential to this model?

Accepted Answer

Constrained Data Items (CDIs). The Clark-Wilson integrity model relies on three core internal components to maintain data integrity: Constrained Data Items (CDIs), which are the protected data objects; Transformation Procedures (TPs), which are well-formed transactions that modify CDIs; and Integrity Verification Procedures (IVPs), which verify that CDIs are in a valid state. Unconstrained Data Items (UDIs) represent external, untrusted data that is not subject to the model's integrity controls until it is processed by a TP. User roles/subjects are part of the access triple (Subject, TP, CDI) but are not themselves one of the core data/procedure components of the model.

Answer

User roles

Answer

Unconstrained Data Items (UDIs)

Question 3

In the context of the Clark-Wilson integrity model, which of the following are key elements? (Choose TWO)

Accepted Answer

Constrained Data Items (CDIs). The Clark-Wilson integrity model is designed for commercial applications and focuses on preventing unauthorized modification of data. Its key components include Constrained Data Items (CDIs) (data whose integrity is protected), Unconstrained Data Items (UDIs) (unprotected data), Transformation Procedures (TPs) (well-formed transactions that transition CDIs from one valid state to another), and Integrity Verification Procedures (IVPs) (which confirm that CDIs are in a valid state).

Answer

Simple Security Property

Answer

Lattice-based access control

Answer

No Write Up property

Question 4

A security architect is designing a system for a military intelligence agency where data classification labels (Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, Unclassified) are mandatory. Users are cleared to a specific level and must not read data above their clearance. Which security model enforces this type of access control?

Accepted Answer

Bell-LaPadula model. Bell-LaPadula focuses on confidentiality and enforces no read up (simple security property) and no write down (*-property), matching the scenario's need to prevent reading higher classified data.

Answer

Biba model

Answer

Brewer-Nash model

Answer

Clark-Wilson model

Question 5

A financial application requires strict integrity controls to prevent unauthorized modifications. The security team implements a model where users cannot write data to higher integrity levels (no write up) and cannot read data from lower integrity levels (no read down). Which model is being applied?

Accepted Answer

Biba. Biba model enforces integrity: no write up (subjects cannot write to higher integrity objects) and no read down (subjects cannot read lower integrity data).

Answer

Bell-LaPadula

Answer

Graham-Denning

Answer

Clark-Wilson

Question 6

Which access control model allows data owners to grant or revoke access to resources they own, typically implemented using ACLs?

Accepted Answer

DAC. DAC (Discretionary Access Control) enables owners to control access to their resources, commonly via ACLs.

Answer

MAC

Answer

RBAC

Answer

ABAC

Question 7

A security architect is selecting a cryptographic algorithm for encrypting data at rest in a backup system. The system requires strong security with a block cipher, and the organization mandates using a NIST-approved algorithm with key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits. Which algorithm should be selected?

Accepted Answer

AES. AES is a NIST-approved symmetric block cipher supporting 128, 192, and 256-bit keys. It is the standard for data at rest encryption.

Answer

RC4

Answer

RSA

Answer

3DES

Question 8

A security engineer is analyzing a vulnerability where an attacker can cause a buffer overflow on the stack. Which mitigation technique randomizes memory addresses to make it harder for the attacker to predict the location of shellcode or return addresses?

Accepted Answer

ASLR. ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) randomizes the base addresses of stack, heap, and libraries, making it difficult for an attacker to guess memory addresses.

Answer

SafeSEH

Answer

Stack canaries

Answer

DEP/NX bit

Question 9

Which of the following is a primary function of a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?

Accepted Answer

Storing cryptographic keys securely. A TPM provides hardware-based secure storage for cryptographic keys, enabling secure boot and remote attestation.

Answer

Encrypting network traffic

Answer

Providing antivirus protection

Answer

Enforcing access control policies

Question 10

A security architect is evaluating hypervisor security for a multi-tenant cloud environment. Which type of hypervisor is considered more secure because it runs directly on the hardware without a host operating system, reducing the attack surface?

Accepted Answer

Type 1 hypervisor. Type 1 hypervisors (bare-metal) run directly on hardware, eliminating the OS layer that could be exploited. Examples: VMware ESXi, Hyper-V.

Answer

Virtual machine monitor

Answer

Containers

Answer

Type 2 hypervisor