ISC2 CC Timed Hard Questions — 25 Difficult Questions

Question 1

In a cloud environment, the security team discovers that a misconfigured cloud storage bucket has made customer data publicly accessible. After securing the bucket, what is the most important next step?

15 minute time limit — choose an answer to begin.

Accepted Answer

Notify affected customers. After securing a misconfigured cloud storage bucket that exposed customer data, the most important next step is to notify affected customers. This aligns with incident response best practices and regulatory requirements (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA) that mandate timely disclosure of data breaches to impacted individuals. Without notification, the organization may face legal penalties and loss of trust, even if the data is now secure.

Answer

Delete the data

Answer

Review logs to determine access

Answer

Change the storage bucket policy

Question 2

A company is implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution. Which strategy BEST balances security and productivity when monitoring outgoing email?

Accepted Answer

Alert on policy violations and allow user to override with manager approval. It balances security and productivity by alerting on policy violations while allowing users to override the block with manager approval. This approach ensures that legitimate business communications are not disrupted, while still enforcing DLP policies through a secondary review process. In a DLP solution, this is often implemented via a 'justify and override' workflow, where the user must provide a reason and receive approval from a manager before the email is sent.

Answer

Log all emails without any alerts

Answer

Block all emails containing keywords like 'confidential'

Answer

Encrypt all outgoing emails automatically

Question 3

A security team is investigating a potential ARP spoofing attack on the local network. Which two measures can effectively detect or prevent such attacks? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Enable DHCP snooping with Dynamic ARP Inspection.. Option B is correct because Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI), working together with DHCP snooping, validates ARP packets against the trusted DHCP snooping binding table and drops ARP packets with spoofed IP-to-MAC mappings, directly detecting and preventing ARP spoofing on the local network. Option E is correct because configuring static ARP entries on critical servers hard-codes the legitimate IP-to-MAC mappings, so the servers ignore forged ARP replies and cannot be poisoned by an attacker on the same segment. Option A does not belong because disabling ICMP redirects only prevents hosts from accepting forged redirect messages for routing manipulation, not ARP cache poisoning. Option C does not belong because MAC address filtering on switches only restricts which MAC addresses may appear on a port and does not validate ARP payloads, so an attacker can still spoof ARP for an allowed MAC. Option D does not belong because STP BPDU guard protects against rogue switches sending spanning-tree BPDUs and has no role in detecting or preventing ARP spoofing.

Answer

Disable ICMP redirects on hosts.

Answer

Use MAC address filtering on switches.

Answer

Enable STP BPDU guard.

Question 4

An access control policy is shown in the exhibit. Which action is permitted for the attached user?

Accepted Answer

Get an object from resource1. The access control policy grants the read action on the resource identified as resource1, which permits retrieving objects from resource1. The Deny effect for the delete action on resource2 does not affect the Allow for the read action on resource1. Therefore, the attached user can get an object from resource1.

Answer

Get an object from resource2

Answer

List the objects in resource1

Answer

Delete an object from resource2

Question 5

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst notices that a user with the Finance role is able to write to /finance/data from a macOS device at 10:00 AM. The policy shown is the only policy affecting this resource. What is the most likely reason for this behavior?

Accepted Answer

The user's device attribute is incorrectly set to Windows.. The policy likely includes a condition such as 'Deny if device.os != "Windows"' to restrict write access to non-Windows devices. Since the user's device attribute is incorrectly set to 'Windows' (even though the actual device is macOS), the condition evaluates to false. Consequently, the Deny rule is not enforced, and the default Allow (or a broader Allow rule) permits write access. This misconfiguration results in unintended access from a macOS device.

Answer

The condition is evaluated as OR instead of AND.

Answer

The time condition is evaluated as BETWEEN 09:00 and 17:00 exclusive.

Answer

The policy is misconfigured with effect Deny.

Question 6

You are the network security lead for a medium-sized financial firm with 500 employees. The network consists of a core switch, distribution switches, and access switches. There are three main VLANs: VLAN 10 (Management - 192.168.10.0/24), VLAN 20 (Finance - 192.168.20.0/24), and VLAN 30 (Guest Wi-Fi - 192.168.30.0/24). The network uses a single firewall with three interfaces: inside (trusted), outside (untrusted), and DMZ. The firewall is configured with default-deny rules. Recently, the helpdesk reported that employees in the Finance VLAN cannot access a web-based accounting application hosted on a server at 10.0.0.5, which is in the DMZ. The server's default gateway is the firewall's DMZ interface (10.0.0.1). The accounting application runs on HTTPS (TCP 443). Employees in the Management VLAN can access the application without issue. You have verified that the Finance VLAN has connectivity to the firewall's inside interface (192.168.20.1). The firewall's inside interface has an IP of 192.168.20.1. There is no ACL on the inside interface. The firewall's DMZ interface has an ACL permitting TCP/443 from any to 10.0.0.5. The firewall's routing table shows a route to 10.0.0.0/24 via DMZ interface. What is the most likely cause of the issue?

Accepted Answer

The firewall lacks a policy permitting traffic from the inside zone to the DMZ zone.. The firewall uses a default-deny policy between zones. Even though the inside interface has no ACL and the DMZ ACL permits HTTPS from any source, the firewall still requires an explicit policy rule allowing traffic from the inside (Finance) zone to the DMZ zone. Without this policy, packets from VLAN 20 to the DMZ server are dropped by the firewall's stateful inspection engine, regardless of interface ACLs or routing.

Answer

The routing table on the firewall does not have a return route to the Finance subnet.

Answer

The DMZ ACL is blocking traffic from the Finance subnet because it only permits from Management subnet.

Answer

An ACL applied inbound on the inside interface is blocking Finance traffic but allowing Management traffic.

Question 7

During an incident, the IR team identifies that the root cause is a zero-day vulnerability. Which of the following is the best immediate action?

Accepted Answer

Implement compensating controls. When a zero-day vulnerability is the root cause, no vendor patch exists yet (option C is impossible). Rebuilding systems (option B) without addressing the vulnerability leaves them re-exposed. The best immediate action is to implement compensating controls—such as firewall rules, IDS/IPS signatures, or application-layer filtering—to mitigate the risk until a permanent fix is available. This aligns with incident response containment strategies that prioritize reducing impact while preserving forensic evidence.

Answer

Report to CERT/CC

Answer

Rebuild all affected systems

Answer

Apply a vendor patch

Question 8

A company’s disaster recovery plan specifies an RTO of 4 hours and an RPO of 1 hour for its critical database. The database is backed up every hour using incremental backups. After a catastrophic failure, restoration takes 3 hours, but the database must be rolled forward using transaction logs. The total time to make the database fully operational is 5 hours. Which statement is correct?

Accepted Answer

RTO is exceeded but RPO is likely met. The RTO is 4 hours, but the total time to make the database fully operational is 5 hours, so RTO is exceeded. The RPO is 1 hour, and backups are taken every hour; the data loss is at most 1 hour of transactions, so RPO is likely met. Therefore, RTO is exceeded but RPO is likely met.

Answer

Both RTO and RPO are exceeded

Answer

RPO is exceeded but RTO is met

Answer

Both RTO and RPO are met

Question 9

A SOC analyst is investigating an incident where an employee's workstation was compromised via a phishing email. The analyst has captured the following indicators: the email originated from a known malicious domain, the attachment was a macro-enabled document, and the macro executed a PowerShell command that downloaded a payload from a remote server. Which TWO actions should the analyst take immediately as part of the incident response process? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Isolate the workstation from the network.. Option B is correct because isolating the compromised workstation from the network immediately contains the incident, preventing the PowerShell-downloaded payload from establishing C2 communication or lateral movement to other hosts. Option D is correct because blocking the known malicious domain at the email gateway stops further phishing emails from that domain reaching other employees, addressing the initial infection vector. Option A is not an immediate containment step; law enforcement notification typically occurs later per legal/organizational policy. Option C, sandboxing the macro, is useful for deeper analysis but is not an immediate containment action and can be done after isolation. Option E, deleting the email from all mailboxes, is a remediation step that may follow, but blocking the domain at the gateway is the more immediate preventive action.

Answer

Contact law enforcement immediately.

Answer

Analyze the macro code in a sandbox.

Answer

Delete the phishing email from all mailboxes.

Question 10

A multinational financial services organization operates three data centers in different geographic regions. Each data center runs a mix of critical and non-critical applications. The DR plan specifies Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs) ranging from 4 hours for critical applications to 72 hours for non-critical. During a scheduled DR test, the team attempts to fail over the primary customer database to the secondary site. The failover fails because the replication link between sites was saturated due to a large data synchronization job running concurrently. The test is declared a failure, and senior management is concerned about the DR plan's reliability. The IT director suggests increasing bandwidth between sites. The security architect proposes implementing network prioritization for replication traffic. The business continuity manager recommends revising the RTOs to be more realistic based on current bandwidth. The system administrator thinks the issue will resolve if the test is repeated during off-peak hours. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to address the root cause of the failure?

Accepted Answer

Implement Quality of Service (QoS) policies to prioritize database replication traffic over other data transfers.. The root cause is that the replication link was saturated by a large data synchronization job, which delayed the critical database replication traffic needed to meet the 4-hour RTO. Implementing Quality of Service (QoS) policies directly addresses this by prioritizing database replication traffic over other data transfers, ensuring that critical replication gets the necessary bandwidth even during concurrent large jobs. This is the most effective solution because it resolves the contention without requiring additional bandwidth or changing RTOs.

Answer

Increase the bandwidth on the replication link by ordering a faster circuit from the ISP.

Answer

Reschedule the next DR test to occur during a scheduled maintenance window with no other replication activity.

Answer

Revise the RTO for the customer database from 4 hours to 8 hours to account for current bandwidth limitations.

Question 11

A company implements a new firewall and intrusion detection system to reduce the risk of network breaches. This is an example of:

Accepted Answer

Risk mitigation. Risk mitigation reduces the likelihood or impact of a threat by implementing controls; a firewall and IDS are detective and preventive controls that lower the probability and severity of a network breach without eliminating the risk entirely. This is the textbook definition of mitigation — the risk still exists but is reduced to an acceptable level.

Answer

Risk avoidance

Answer

Risk acceptance

Answer

Risk transfer

Question 12

An organization wants to implement network segmentation to improve security. Which three methods are commonly used for network segmentation? (Select THREE.)

Accepted Answer

Subnetting. Subnetting (A) is correct because dividing a larger IP network into smaller logical subnets using CIDR and subnet masks creates distinct broadcast domains and limits lateral movement between segments. DMZs (B) are correct because a demilitarized zone places internet-facing services such as web, mail, or DNS servers in a separate screened segment, isolating them from the internal trusted network. VLANs (D) are correct because IEEE 802.1Q VLANs logically segment a switched network at Layer 2, allowing departments or device groups to be separated without physical rewiring and enforcing traffic isolation via trunk and access port configuration. Firewalls (C) are not a segmentation method themselves; they are policy enforcement devices that control traffic between segments, so they are typically deployed to secure segmentation rather than create it. Intrusion Detection Systems (E) are monitoring tools that detect malicious activity and generate alerts, but they do not divide or isolate network segments.

Answer

Firewalls

Answer

Intrusion Detection Systems

Question 13

Which THREE security mechanisms should be implemented to secure a network against ARP spoofing attacks? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

IP Source Guard. IP Source Guard (A) is correct because it uses DHCP snooping binding table entries to filter traffic on a per-port basis, dropping packets where the source IP address does not match the binding. This prevents an attacker from spoofing a legitimate host's IP address in ARP spoofing attacks by ensuring only valid IP-to-MAC mappings are allowed on the port.

Answer

Port security

Answer

MAC address filtering

Question 14

A security analyst is investigating a potential breach. The analyst discovers that an attacker gained access to a server by exploiting a known vulnerability that was not patched. The attacker then installed malware that encrypted critical files and demanded payment. Which of the following best describes the role of the unpatched vulnerability in this incident?

Accepted Answer

It is a weakness that was exploited by a threat.. The unpatched vulnerability is a weakness in the system that was exploited by a threat (the attacker). In risk management, a vulnerability is a flaw or gap that can be leveraged to compromise security. The threat is the actor or event that exploits the vulnerability, and the risk is the potential for loss. The impact is the resulting damage. Therefore, the vulnerability's role is that of a weakness exploited by a threat, making it the correct description.

Answer

It is the risk that materialized.

Answer

It is the impact of the security incident.

Answer

It is the threat that exploited the system.

Question 15

A security manager is advised to implement 'due care' in their organization. Which action best exemplifies due care?

Accepted Answer

Regularly updating antivirus software. Due care means taking reasonable steps to protect assets, such as implementing basic security controls like patch management.

Answer

Purchasing cyber insurance

Answer

Performing a background check on a new vendor

Answer

Accepting the risk of a legacy system

Question 16

A SOC analyst reviews a SIEM alert indicating a high volume of outbound traffic from a server to an external IP address known for command-and-control activity. The analyst has confirmed the alert is not a false positive. What is the most appropriate next step?

Accepted Answer

Conduct a deeper investigation to identify affected systems and data.. After confirming a SIEM alert is not a false positive, the most appropriate next step is to conduct a deeper investigation to identify affected systems and data. This aligns with the incident response process, where containment and eradication should be based on a thorough understanding of the scope and impact. Immediate blocking or rebooting without investigation could destroy evidence or disrupt business operations.

Answer

Escalate the alert to Tier 3 for advanced analysis.

Answer

Block the external IP address at the firewall immediately.

Answer

Reboot the server to terminate any malicious processes.

Question 17

A multinational corporation deploys redundant servers in geographically diverse data centers and uses a load balancer to distribute traffic. This setup primarily addresses which security concern?

Accepted Answer

Availability. Redundancy and load balancing ensure that systems remain accessible, supporting availability.

Answer

Confidentiality

Answer

Integrity

Answer

Non-repudiation

Question 18

An organization is developing a data classification policy. Which THREE of the following are common classification levels?

Accepted Answer

Confidential. Public, confidential, and restricted are typical classification levels.

Answer

Critical

Answer

Sensitive

Question 19

An attacker sends forged ARP messages to associate their MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate server. This allows the attacker to intercept traffic intended for that server. What is this attack?

Accepted Answer

ARP spoofing. ARP spoofing (or ARP poisoning) involves sending fake ARP replies to associate the attacker's MAC with a victim's IP, enabling man-in-the-middle attacks.

Answer

DNS poisoning

Answer

MAC flooding

Answer

IP spoofing

Question 20

An organization experiences intermittent network outages. The security team notices that the ARP cache on several switches has entries pointing to an unknown MAC address for the default gateway. Which attack is most likely occurring?

Accepted Answer

ARP spoofing. ARP spoofing (ARP poisoning) occurs when an attacker sends forged ARP replies to associate their MAC address with the IP of the default gateway. Switches then populate their ARP caches with the attacker's MAC for the gateway IP, causing traffic to be redirected to the attacker. This matches the symptom of ARP cache entries pointing to an unknown MAC for the gateway.

Answer

DNS poisoning

Answer

IP spoofing

Answer

MAC flooding