CISM Exam Simulation — 100 Questions

Question 1

A financial institution is implementing a new online banking platform. The risk assessment identified that the authentication module has a high likelihood of exploitation due to weak password policies. The risk owner has decided to implement multi-factor authentication (MFA) to reduce the risk. This is an example of which risk response strategy?

Accepted Answer

Risk mitigation. Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) reduces the likelihood or impact of a security risk by adding additional authentication factors (e.g., something you know, something you have, something you are) beyond a weak password. This directly aligns with risk mitigation, which seeks to decrease the residual risk to an acceptable level through controls. The decision does not eliminate the risk entirely (avoidance), accept it without action, or transfer it to a third party.

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Risk avoidance

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Risk acceptance

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Risk transfer

Question 2

Which of the following are key components of an information security program? (Select TWO)

Accepted Answer

A set of security policies and standards. A set of security policies and standards is a key component because it establishes the governance framework that defines acceptable use, access control, and compliance requirements for the entire organization. Without documented policies and standards, the security program lacks the authoritative baseline to enforce controls or measure effectiveness. These documents are the foundation for all other security activities, including training, audits, and incident response.

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A network architecture diagram

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An incident response log

Question 3

A multinational corporation is implementing an information security governance framework. The board has requested a mechanism to ensure that security investments align with business objectives. Which of the following is the BEST approach to achieve this alignment?

Accepted Answer

Develop a risk-based prioritization framework linking security initiatives to business risk appetite.. Option D is correct because a risk-based prioritization framework directly maps security initiatives to the organization's risk appetite, ensuring that investments target the most critical business risks. This aligns with the CISM principle that governance must link security activities to business objectives through risk management, not through arbitrary cost-cutting or blanket compliance.

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Minimize security spending to maximize ROI.

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Adopt a best-practice framework such as NIST CSF and implement all controls.

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Focus on regulatory compliance to ensure legal requirements are met.

Question 4

A healthcare organization is developing an information security strategy. The board has mandated that the strategy must support innovation while protecting patient data. Which governance approach BEST balances these priorities?

Accepted Answer

Establish a risk appetite framework that defines acceptable risk levels for innovation initiatives.. A risk appetite framework (Option B) is the correct governance approach because it explicitly defines the level of risk the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of innovation, allowing the board to balance patient data protection with strategic growth. This framework provides a decision-making boundary for security controls, ensuring that innovation initiatives are not stifled by overly restrictive measures while still maintaining compliance with healthcare regulations like HIPAA and HITECH.

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Implement strict access controls and encryption for all data.

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Adopt a 'security by design' approach for all new projects.

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Create a separate innovation sandbox with limited data access.

Question 5

A newly appointed CISO wants to establish an information security governance committee. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this committee?

Accepted Answer

To ensure security strategy aligns with business objectives and provide oversight.. The primary purpose of an information security governance committee is to ensure that the security strategy aligns with business objectives and to provide oversight. This committee does not execute day-to-day operations or implement controls; instead, it sets direction, reviews risk posture, and ensures that security investments support organizational goals, as defined in frameworks like COBIT and ISO 38500.

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To manage day-to-day security operations.

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To implement security controls across the organization.

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To approve technical security solutions.

Question 6

Which TWO of the following are primary objectives of information security governance? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Align security strategy with business goals.. Option B is correct because information security governance's primary objective is to ensure that security strategy is aligned with business goals, enabling the organization to protect assets while supporting its mission. This alignment is achieved through governance frameworks like COBIT or ISO 38500, which mandate that security investments and controls are directly tied to business objectives, not isolated technical measures.

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Eliminate all information security risks.

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Maximize profitability through security investments.

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Achieve compliance with all applicable regulations.

Question 7

A financial services firm has a mature information security program but is struggling to demonstrate the value of security investments to the board. Which metric would BEST communicate the effectiveness of the security program in business terms?

Accepted Answer

Reduction in average cost per security incident over the past year.. The reduction in average cost per security incident directly translates security program outcomes into financial terms that resonate with the board. This metric demonstrates the program's effectiveness by quantifying the monetary value of improved prevention, detection, and response capabilities, aligning with the CISM focus on governance and business alignment.

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Number of security alerts triaged per day.

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Time to patch critical vulnerabilities.

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Percentage of systems with endpoint protection installed.

Question 8

You are the CISO of a mid-sized e-commerce company with 500 employees. The company recently suffered a data breach where an attacker exfiltrated customer credit card data from the production database. The investigation revealed that the breach originated from a compromised developer workstation. The developer had been granted direct access to the production database for troubleshooting purposes, a practice that had been in place for years. The security governance framework currently lacks a formal process for managing privileged access. The board has asked for immediate improvements to prevent recurrence. Which course of action BEST addresses the governance gap?

Accepted Answer

Implement a privileged access management (PAM) solution with just-in-time access and session recording.. The core governance gap is the lack of a formal process for managing privileged access. Implementing a Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution with just-in-time (JIT) access and session recording directly addresses this by enforcing time-bound, auditable, and approved access to the production database, eliminating standing privileges. This aligns with the principle of least privilege and provides a governance mechanism to control, monitor, and revoke elevated access, which is the root cause of the breach.

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Segment the network to isolate production databases from developer workstations.

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Conduct security awareness training for all developers on password security.

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Deploy endpoint protection and patch management for all workstations.

Question 9

A company is considering outsourcing its security operations center (SOC). Which governance consideration is MOST critical before finalizing the decision?

Accepted Answer

The ability to maintain oversight and accountability for security outcomes.. Option D is correct because governance requires that the organization retains ultimate responsibility for security outcomes, even when functions are outsourced. Without the ability to maintain oversight and accountability, the company cannot ensure that its security posture aligns with business risk tolerance and regulatory compliance requirements. This is a fundamental principle of information security governance, as the board and senior management cannot delegate accountability.

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The vendor's service level agreements (SLAs) for incident response times.

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The vendor's technical expertise and certifications.

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The cost savings compared to in-house operations.

Question 10

A security analyst detects unusual outbound network traffic from a database server to an unknown IP address. The traffic uses encrypted connections on port 443. Which type of attack is MOST likely occurring?

Accepted Answer

Data exfiltration. The encrypted outbound traffic on port 443 (HTTPS) from a database server to an unknown IP is a classic indicator of data exfiltration. Attackers often use encrypted channels to bypass network security controls, as the contents of the traffic cannot be inspected by DLP or IDS/IPS systems. The database server is a high-value target for sensitive data, making this the most likely attack scenario.

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SQL injection

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Ransomware

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Denial of service

Question 11

A multinational corporation is assessing the risk of data breaches from third-party vendors. The CISM is tasked with selecting a risk treatment strategy. The organization has a low risk appetite for data breaches. Which strategy should be prioritized?

Accepted Answer

Avoid the risk by not engaging vendors that cannot meet security requirements.. Given the organization's low risk appetite for data breaches, the most appropriate strategy is to avoid the risk entirely by not engaging vendors that cannot meet security requirements. This aligns with the principle that when risk exceeds the acceptable threshold, avoidance is the prioritized treatment. Avoidance eliminates the risk source, whereas other strategies like mitigation or transfer still retain some residual risk that may be unacceptable.

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Mitigate the risk by conducting regular vendor audits.

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Transfer the risk by requiring vendors to have cyber insurance.

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Accept the risk because third-party risks are unavoidable.

Question 12

During a simulated phishing exercise, several employees clicked a link and entered their credentials on a fake login page. The security team needs to determine the impact. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

Accepted Answer

Reset the affected employees' passwords and enable multi-factor authentication. When credentials are compromised in a phishing attack, the immediate priority is to contain the breach by invalidating the exposed credentials. Resetting the affected employees' passwords and enabling multi-factor authentication (MFA) prevents attackers from using the harvested credentials for unauthorized access, especially if the credentials are reused across other systems. This aligns with the Incident Response phase of containment before moving to eradication or recovery.

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Implement a security awareness training program

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Conduct a forensic analysis of the employees' workstations

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Block the phishing domain at the web proxy

Question 13

Which TWO of the following are best practices for preserving digital evidence during an incident? (Select exactly 2)

Accepted Answer

Create a forensic image of the hard drive using a write blocker. Creating a forensic image with a write blocker (Option A) is a best practice because it captures an exact bit-for-bit copy of the storage media without altering the original data. The write blocker intercepts write commands at the hardware or software level, ensuring the integrity of the evidence. This preserves the original state for later analysis and admissibility in legal proceedings.

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Interview witnesses before collecting data

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Run antivirus scans on the affected system

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Reboot the system to clear memory

Question 14

Based on the SIEM alert exhibit, which immediate action should the incident responder take?

Accepted Answer

Lock the user account 'jsmith'. The SIEM alert indicates a successful brute-force login from source IP 10.0.0.55 to the destination server using the account 'jsmith'. Locking the user account immediately stops the attacker from further exploiting the compromised credentials, which is the most direct containment action. Blocking the IP alone would not prevent re-authentication if the attacker switches IPs, and contacting the user wastes critical time during an active incident.

Answer

Block the source IP 10.0.0.55 at the firewall

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Increase logging level for the destination server

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Contact the user 'jsmith' to verify activity

Question 15

During an incident investigation, the security team discovers that an attacker exfiltrated sensitive customer data via encrypted DNS tunneling over a period of three months. The data loss was only noticed after a routine audit. Which of the following weaknesses MOST likely allowed the attacker to remain undetected for so long?

Accepted Answer

Inadequate monitoring of DNS traffic for anomalies. The correct answer is A because DNS tunneling exfiltrates data by encoding it within DNS queries and responses, which are often allowed through firewalls without deep inspection. The attacker remained undetected for three months because the security team lacked monitoring of DNS traffic for anomalies, such as unusual query volumes, non-standard record types (e.g., TXT records), or domains with high entropy. Without DNS-specific anomaly detection or a security information and event management (SIEM) system correlating DNS logs, the exfiltration blended into normal traffic.

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Weak password policies

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Unpatched web server software

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Lack of data-at-rest encryption

Question 16

During an incident, the response team collects volatile data from a compromised server. Which of the following should be collected FIRST to minimize loss of evidence?

Accepted Answer

Contents of RAM. Volatile data, such as the contents of RAM, is lost when a system is powered off. The first priority during incident response is to capture this data because it contains running processes, network connections, encryption keys, and malware that exist only in memory. Collecting RAM first ensures that this critical evidence is preserved before any other actions that might alter the system state.

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Contents of hard drive

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Event logs

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Network configuration

Question 17

Which TWO of the following are key indicators of a potential insider threat incident? (Select exactly 2)

Accepted Answer

A user accessing large volumes of data not related to their job function. Option C is correct because a user accessing large volumes of data unrelated to their job function is a classic behavioral anomaly indicating potential data exfiltration. This pattern often precedes an insider threat incident, as the user may be collecting sensitive information for unauthorized purposes, such as selling it or using it for personal gain. Security information and event management (SIEM) systems typically flag such access based on deviations from baseline user behavior, triggering further investigation.

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Multiple failed login attempts from an external IP address

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An increase in network traffic to a known malicious domain

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A user updating their password as required by policy

Question 18

A multinational corporation has just detected a ransomware attack that encrypted critical files on a file server. The incident response team has been activated. Which of the following should be the FIRST action taken by the team?

Accepted Answer

Isolate the affected systems from the network. The first priority in ransomware incident response is containment to prevent the encryption from spreading to other systems. Isolating the affected file server from the network (e.g., disabling the network interface or disconnecting the cable) stops the ransomware from communicating with its command-and-control server and encrypting additional shares. This aligns with the NIST SP 800-61 containment strategy and ensures that the incident response team can safely preserve forensic evidence before any remediation.

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Restore encrypted files from backup

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Reboot the file server to clear the encryption

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Notify law enforcement

Question 19

After a security incident, the incident response team prepares a report detailing the root cause, impact, and lessons learned. Who is the PRIMARY audience for this report?

Accepted Answer

Senior management and the board of directors. The primary audience for a post-incident report detailing root cause, impact, and lessons learned is senior management and the board of directors. They require this information to make strategic decisions about risk acceptance, resource allocation for remediation, and to fulfill fiduciary duties regarding cybersecurity governance. The report provides the business context and financial impact necessary for executive-level oversight, not the technical details needed by operational teams.

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The affected users

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The IT support team

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External auditors

Question 20

Which TWO actions are appropriate during the containment phase of an incident involving a malware outbreak on multiple workstations?

Accepted Answer

Isolate infected workstations from the network. Option C is correct because isolating infected workstations from the network is a primary containment action that prevents the malware from spreading laterally to other systems, limiting the scope of the incident. This is typically achieved by disconnecting network cables, disabling switch ports, or using network access control (NAC) to quarantine the affected hosts, which stops further propagation without destroying forensic evidence.

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Contact all users to warn them about the malware

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Reimage all affected workstations immediately

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Notify customers about potential data breach