CISM Practice Test 4 — 10 Questions

Question 1

Order the steps for implementing a security awareness training program.

Accepted Answer

Needs Assessment, then Content Development, then Delivery, then Evaluation, then Continuous Improvement. Training programs start with needs assessment, then content development, delivery, evaluation, and continuous improvement.

Answer

Content Development, then Needs Assessment, then Delivery, then Evaluation, then Continuous Improvement

Answer

Needs Assessment, then Content Development, then Delivery, then Continuous Improvement, then Evaluation

Answer

Needs Assessment, then Content Development, then Evaluation, then Delivery, then Continuous Improvement

Question 2

Match each security framework to its primary purpose.

Accepted Answer

COBIT: A framework for IT governance and management.. COBIT is for IT governance, ISO 27001 for ISMS, and NIST CSF for cybersecurity risk management. The distractors swap definitions between COBIT and ISO 27001.

Answer

COBIT: A standard for information security management systems.

Answer

ISO 27001: A framework for IT governance and management.

Question 3

Which THREE of the following are challenges in implementing information security governance in a decentralized organization?

Accepted Answer

Redundant security controls and tools. In a decentralized organization, each business unit often selects its own security tools and controls, leading to redundant security controls and tools across the enterprise. This redundancy increases costs, creates management complexity, and can introduce gaps in coverage due to inconsistent integration. The lack of centralized oversight means that duplicate solutions for the same function (e.g., multiple endpoint protection platforms) are common, making unified monitoring and maintenance difficult.

Answer

Unified risk reporting

Answer

Centralized incident response

Question 4

A company is evaluating its risk management process. The CISM notices that risks are being assessed based on qualitative scales (low, medium, high) but decisions require quantitative data. What is the most effective action to improve the process?

Accepted Answer

Use a hybrid approach that includes both qualitative and quantitative assessments.. A hybrid approach (Option B) is most effective because it leverages qualitative scales for initial, rapid risk identification and prioritization, while quantitative data (e.g., ALE, SLE, ARO) provides the monetary rigor needed for cost-benefit analysis and management decisions. This aligns with ISACA's guidance that risk assessment should be tailored to the decision context, not purely one method.

Answer

Switch to a fully quantitative risk assessment methodology.

Answer

Replace qualitative scales with precise monetary values.

Answer

Continue using qualitative method since it is simpler.

Question 5

After a security incident, the incident response team identifies that the root cause was a phishing email that bypassed the email filter. The email contained a malicious macro that executed PowerShell commands. Which control would be MOST effective in preventing similar incidents in the future?

Accepted Answer

Disable macros in documents originating from external sources. Disabling macros in documents from external sources directly addresses the attack vector: the malicious macro that executed PowerShell commands. This control prevents the macro from running, regardless of the email filter's failure, by blocking the execution environment at the endpoint level. It is a preventive technical control that stops the attack before it can proceed.

Answer

Implement network segmentation for sensitive systems

Answer

Deploy additional antivirus software on endpoints

Answer

Conduct security awareness training for all employees

Question 6

A security manager is evaluating the effectiveness of the security program. Which of the following would be valid indicators of a mature program? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

Risk management integrated into business processes. Risk management integrated into business processes (B) is a key indicator of a mature security program because it demonstrates that security is not a siloed function but is embedded in strategic decision-making, resource allocation, and operational workflows. This alignment ensures that security controls and investments are directly tied to business objectives and risk appetite, which is a hallmark of maturity as defined by frameworks like the CMMI and the ISACA CISM model.

Answer

Number of security tools deployed

Answer

Low number of security incidents

Question 7

Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of incident containment?

Accepted Answer

To prevent further damage and limit the scope of the incident.. The primary goal of incident containment is to stop the incident from spreading and to limit the scope of damage. This is the immediate priority because, without containment, the attacker may continue to compromise additional systems, exfiltrate data, or escalate privileges. Options A, B, and C are important subsequent steps but are secondary to the urgent need to halt the incident's progression.

Answer

To gather evidence for prosecution.

Answer

To recover systems to normal operation.

Answer

To identify the root cause.

Question 8

A company's incident response team uses a SIEM to detect security events. Which SIEM capability is MOST critical for early detection of a potential incident?

Accepted Answer

Correlation rules. Correlation rules are the most critical SIEM capability for early detection because they allow the incident response team to define specific patterns of activity (e.g., multiple failed logins followed by a successful login from a different geographic location) that indicate a potential security incident. Unlike raw log review or simple alerting, correlation rules reduce false positives by combining multiple data sources and time-based conditions, enabling the SIEM to identify complex attack chains at the earliest possible stage. Without correlation, the team would rely on manual log analysis or isolated alerts, which significantly delays detection.

Answer

Real-time alerting

Answer

User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA)

Answer

Long-term log retention

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit. The CISO wants to improve the program. Which recommendation BEST addresses the main gap shown in the dashboard?

Accepted Answer

Implement automated patching for high-risk vulnerabilities. The dashboard shows high-risk vulnerability remediation at 88%, which is below the target. Implementing automated patching for high-risk vulnerabilities would directly address this gap by ensuring faster and more consistent remediation. Option B is incorrect because reducing the compliance target does not fix the underlying issue. Option C is incorrect because critical vulnerability remediation is already high. Option D is incorrect because increasing patch frequency for all systems may not specifically target the high-risk vulnerability gap.

Answer

Reduce the compliance target for high-risk vulnerabilities to 90 days

Answer

Focus on critical vulnerability remediation

Answer

Increase patch frequency for all systems

Question 10

An organization wants to measure the effectiveness of its security awareness programme. Which metric is a leading indicator of improved security culture?

Accepted Answer

Number of phishing emails reported by employees. An increase in the number of phishing emails reported by employees indicates that they are actively recognizing and reporting suspicious activity, which is a leading indicator of improved security awareness and culture.

Answer

Number of security incidents attributed to human error

Answer

Percentage of employees who completed annual training

Answer

Average score on knowledge assessment tests