CISM Practice Test 3 — 30 Questions

Question 1

A newly appointed CISO wants to establish an information security governance committee. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this committee?

Accepted Answer

To ensure security strategy aligns with business objectives and provide oversight.. The primary purpose of an information security governance committee is to ensure that the security strategy aligns with business objectives and to provide oversight. This committee does not execute day-to-day operations or implement controls; instead, it sets direction, reviews risk posture, and ensures that security investments support organizational goals, as defined in frameworks like COBIT and ISO 38500.

Answer

To manage day-to-day security operations.

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To implement security controls across the organization.

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To approve technical security solutions.

Question 2

An organization uses the ISO 31000 risk management framework. During the risk evaluation phase, it determines that a certain risk has a low likelihood but very high impact. The organization's risk appetite is moderate. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate risk treatment decision?

Accepted Answer

Mitigate the risk by implementing controls to reduce impact. ISO 31000's risk evaluation phase requires aligning treatment decisions with the organization's risk appetite. With a moderate risk appetite, a low-likelihood but very-high-impact risk cannot simply be accepted (as it exceeds appetite), nor is avoidance necessary since the likelihood is low. Mitigation through controls that reduce the impact is the most balanced approach, bringing the residual risk within the moderate appetite threshold.

Answer

Accept the risk due to low likelihood

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Avoid the risk by discontinuing the activity that generates it

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Transfer the risk through insurance

Question 3

An organization is implementing a security controls framework and must decide on prioritization. According to defense-in-depth principles, which approach should be taken first?

Accepted Answer

Prioritize critical controls that address the most significant risks. Defense-in-depth starts with critical controls that protect against the most likely threats, often following frameworks like CIS Critical Controls, which prioritize foundational controls.

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Select all controls from NIST SP 800-53 without prioritization

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Deploy business-enabling controls that support operations

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Implement compensating controls to address gaps in existing controls

Question 4

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the board of directors in information security governance?

Accepted Answer

Providing strategic direction and oversight of the security program.. The board of directors holds the ultimate fiduciary responsibility for the organization, including its information security posture. Their primary role is to provide strategic direction and oversight, ensuring that the security program aligns with business objectives, risk appetite, and regulatory requirements. This includes approving the overall security strategy, reviewing key risk indicators, and holding management accountable for security performance, not executing tactical tasks.

Answer

Managing the day-to-day security operations.

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Implementing security controls and technologies.

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Developing detailed security policies and procedures.

Question 5

An information security manager is developing a security program for a multinational organization. Which of the following should be considered when defining the program scope? (Select THREE)

Accepted Answer

Business objectives and strategy. Business objectives and strategy (A) are foundational because the security program must align with and support the organization's mission, risk appetite, and strategic goals. Without this alignment, security controls may conflict with business operations or fail to prioritize critical assets, leading to wasted resources or increased risk exposure.

Answer

Current technology architecture

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit. An analyst observes the network traffic between three internal hosts and a web server. Which of the following is the MOST likely interpretation of this traffic?

Accepted Answer

Multiple users are accessing the web server normally.. The exhibit shows multiple internal hosts (10.0.0.1, 10.0.0.2, 10.0.0.3) each establishing a normal TCP three-way handshake with the web server (192.168.1.100) on port 80, with varying source ports and no abnormal flags or packet rates. This pattern indicates legitimate concurrent user access, as each host completes the handshake and exchanges data without flooding or scanning behavior.

Answer

A SYN flood attack is in progress.

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A single host is using multiple IP addresses to scan the server.

Answer

A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is occurring.

Question 7

Which of the following are key components of an information security program's strategic plan? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

Security program vision and objectives. The strategic plan for an information security program defines the long-term direction and governance framework. The security program vision and objectives (B) establish the overarching goals and alignment with business strategy, while the roadmap for security initiatives (D) provides the phased implementation plan to achieve those objectives. These are foundational components of strategic planning, not operational or tactical elements.

Answer

Annual budget allocation

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Incident response procedures

Question 8

During a risk assessment, the risk team identifies that a key vendor has access to sensitive data. The vendor's security posture is unclear. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Accepted Answer

Conduct a third-party risk assessment. When a vendor's security posture is unclear and they have access to sensitive data, the best course of action is to conduct a third-party risk assessment. This assessment evaluates the vendor's security controls, compliance with standards (e.g., ISO 27001, SOC 2), and contractual obligations before making any decisions. It provides the necessary evidence to determine if the risk is acceptable or requires mitigation, rather than acting on assumptions.

Answer

Ignore the risk because the vendor is known

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Terminate the vendor relationship immediately

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Request the vendor's latest security certification

Question 9

An information security program is being developed for a multinational organization. Which of the following is the PRIMARY driver for aligning the security program with business objectives?

Accepted Answer

Achieving the organization's strategic goals. The primary driver for aligning the security program with business objectives is to ensure that security initiatives directly support and enable the organization's strategic goals. Without this alignment, security becomes a cost center rather than a business enabler, and resources may be misallocated to activities that do not advance the enterprise's mission. CISM emphasizes that security governance must be integrated with business strategy to justify investment and demonstrate value to stakeholders.

Answer

Compliance with industry regulations

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Reducing information security costs

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Implementing the latest security technologies

Question 10

Which THREE are valid sources for threat intelligence that can be used during incident response? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Industry information sharing groups. Industry information sharing groups (Option B) are a valid source of threat intelligence because they provide curated, actionable data on emerging threats, indicators of compromise (IOCs), and attack patterns from peer organizations. This intelligence is directly applicable during incident response to identify known adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) and to correlate findings with ongoing incidents.

Answer

Social media posts from employees

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Internal network traffic logs

Question 11

A financial institution is hit by a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack that is overwhelming their internet-facing services. The incident response team activates the plan, but the attack continues to escalate. The CEO is under pressure and asks the incident response manager whether they should pay the ransom demand (the attackers also sent an extortion note demanding payment to stop the attack). The manager must advise the CEO on the best course of action.

Accepted Answer

Engage a DDoS scrubbing service to filter malicious traffic. Using DDoS scrubbing services (cloud-based or on-premise) is the recommended technical defense. Paying the ransom encourages future attacks and does not guarantee the attack will stop. Rate limiting may affect legitimate traffic. Shutting down external access is too drastic and impacts business.

Answer

Implement rate limiting on the firewall

Answer

Shut down all external-facing services

Answer

Pay the ransom to stop the attack immediately

Question 12

A small marketing firm with 50 employees experiences a ransomware attack. The IT administrator quickly isolates the infected workstations by disconnecting them from the network. The company has a backup strategy that performs nightly backups to an on-premises NAS device. The administrator restores the affected systems from the most recent backup, but some files remain encrypted. The users report that the backups from the last two days show corruption as well. The firm does not have a formal incident response plan. The owner is anxious to get back to work and asks the administrator what to do next. What should the administrator do?

Accepted Answer

Restore from an older backup taken before the infection. Restoring from an older backup (before the ransomware infection occurred) is the most likely way to get clean data. Paying the ransom is not recommended as it encourages attackers and there is no guarantee. Contacting law enforcement is a good step but not the immediate technical solution. Running an antivirus scan is insufficient for decryption.

Answer

Contact law enforcement immediately

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Pay the ransom to get the decryption key

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Run a full antivirus scan on the restored systems

Question 13

Which THREE of the following are common challenges when implementing a risk management program in an organization? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Lack of senior management support. Lack of senior management support (A) is a common challenge because risk management programs require executive sponsorship to enforce policies, allocate budget, and drive cross-departmental compliance. Without C-level backing, risk assessments and remediation efforts often stall due to insufficient authority and resources.

Answer

Too many controls implemented too quickly

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Overly detailed risk appetite

Question 14

A manufacturing company has an incident response plan that includes a communication plan. However, during a recent ransomware incident, the team realized that the external legal counsel was not listed in the plan. The incident requires consultation with legal due to potential regulatory implications. The incident response manager needs to address this gap quickly. What should the manager do?

Accepted Answer

Add the legal counsel to the incident response plan immediately. The manager should add legal counsel to the communication plan immediately to ensure they are included in future incidents. Ignoring them or delaying notification could worsen regulatory consequences. Using internal legal might not be sufficient for external counsel needs.

Answer

Notify legal counsel after the incident is resolved

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Use only internal legal department instead of external counsel

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Ignore legal counsel involvement for this incident

Question 15

During third-party risk assessment, a vendor is found to have access to sensitive customer data. The vendor's own supply chain includes a critical fourth-party component. What is the BEST way to address this nth-party risk?

Accepted Answer

Request the vendor to assess and pass through security requirements to its suppliers. Requiring the vendor to manage its sub-suppliers through contractual flow-down ensures the organization's risk requirements extend throughout the supply chain.

Answer

Ignore the fourth party as it is outside the organization's scope

Answer

Conduct a direct assessment of the fourth party

Answer

Terminate the contract with the vendor

Question 16

An organization's security program includes metrics to measure performance. Which metric BEST indicates the effectiveness of the vulnerability management process?

Accepted Answer

Mean time to remediate (MTTR) vulnerabilities. Mean time to remediate (MTTR) directly measures how quickly the organization closes the window of exposure after a vulnerability is identified. A lower MTTR indicates a more effective vulnerability management process because it reduces the risk window, whereas raw counts of vulnerabilities or patches do not reflect the timeliness or completeness of remediation.

Answer

Number of vulnerabilities identified

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Number of patches deployed per month

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Percentage of systems scanned weekly

Question 17

Which document should be reviewed and updated at least annually?

Accepted Answer

Incident response plan. The incident response plan must be reviewed and updated at least annually to ensure it remains effective against evolving threats and changes in the organization. Option B is correct. Vendor contracts (A), network topology diagrams (C), and user manuals (D) are typically reviewed on a different schedule or as needed, not necessarily annually.

Answer

Vendor contracts

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Network topology diagram

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User manuals

Question 18

An organization has experienced a DDoS attack that is overwhelming its internet-facing services. The incident response team has implemented mitigations, but services remain degraded. The maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) for the affected services is 4 hours, and 3 hours have passed. Which of the following should the incident manager do NEXT?

Accepted Answer

Escalate to the crisis management team to consider activating the disaster recovery plan.. If an incident cannot be resolved within the MTD, it should transition to BC/DR activation. The decision authority (e.g., CISO or CMT) should declare a disaster.

Answer

Continue current mitigation efforts and reassess after another hour.

Answer

Increase the capacity of the DDoS mitigation service.

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Notify customers of a prolonged outage.

Question 19

You are the CISO of a mid-sized e-commerce company with 500 employees. The company recently suffered a data breach where an attacker exfiltrated customer credit card data from the production database. The investigation revealed that the breach originated from a compromised developer workstation. The developer had been granted direct access to the production database for troubleshooting purposes, a practice that had been in place for years. The security governance framework currently lacks a formal process for managing privileged access. The board has asked for immediate improvements to prevent recurrence. Which course of action BEST addresses the governance gap?

Accepted Answer

Implement a privileged access management (PAM) solution with just-in-time access and session recording.. The core governance gap is the lack of a formal process for managing privileged access. Implementing a Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution with just-in-time (JIT) access and session recording directly addresses this by enforcing time-bound, auditable, and approved access to the production database, eliminating standing privileges. This aligns with the principle of least privilege and provides a governance mechanism to control, monitor, and revoke elevated access, which is the root cause of the breach.

Answer

Segment the network to isolate production databases from developer workstations.

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Conduct security awareness training for all developers on password security.

Answer

Deploy endpoint protection and patch management for all workstations.

Question 20

You are the incident response manager for a multinational corporation that processes sensitive financial data. The company has a mature security operations center (SOC) that monitors network traffic, endpoints, and cloud services. At 2:00 AM local time, the SOC alerts you to a critical incident: an internal server (IP 10.10.10.50) is communicating with an external IP address (198.51.100.23) known to be associated with a ransomware group. The server hosts a financial database that is replicated to a secondary site every 6 hours. The last successful replication was at 1:00 AM. The SOC has already isolated the server from the network by blocking its outbound traffic at the firewall. However, the server is still running. The initial investigation suggests that the communication started 30 minutes ago. The database contains customer PII and transactional data. Your incident response plan includes steps for containment, eradication, recovery, and post-incident review. The CEO is being notified and expects a recommendation on the best course of action. The company has a cyber insurance policy that requires timely notification and preservation of evidence. The legal department advises that any action that could destroy evidence must be carefully considered. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Accepted Answer

Take a forensic image of the server's memory and disk for analysis, then rebuild the server from a known good backup.. It balances forensic preservation (memory and disk imaging) with recovery from a known good backup, ensuring evidence is intact for legal and insurance requirements while restoring operations. The server is isolated, so imaging can be done safely without risk of further compromise, and the 1:00 AM backup (just one hour before the 2:00 AM communication started) is likely clean, minimizing data loss.

Answer

Reconnect the server to the network and attempt to negotiate with the attacker if ransomware is detected.

Answer

Immediately wipe the server and restore from the 1:00 AM backup to minimize downtime.

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Leave the server isolated but running to monitor the attacker's actions and gather intelligence.