CISM Practice Test 2 — 25 Questions

Question 1

Arrange the steps for implementing a new firewall rule in an enterprise environment.

Accepted Answer

Identify requirement, Submit change request, Test in staging, Implement on production, Verify rule operation. Firewall changes require clear objectives, change control, testing, implementation, and verification.

Answer

Test in staging, Implement on production, Identify requirement, Submit change request, Verify rule operation

Answer

Submit change request, Identify requirement, Test in staging, Implement on production, Verify rule operation

Answer

Identify requirement, Test in staging, Implement on production, Submit change request, Verify rule operation

Question 2

Refer to the exhibit. An analyst sees this alert on the network. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

Accepted Answer

Investigate the source endpoint for compromise. The alert indicates a potential command-and-control (C2) communication, likely involving a beaconing pattern to an external IP. Investigating the source endpoint for compromise is the most appropriate immediate action because it allows the incident responder to determine if the host is actively compromised, collect forensic evidence, and contain the threat before it escalates. Blocking IPs prematurely could destroy evidence or alert the attacker, while ignoring the alert risks missing a confirmed breach.

Answer

Ignore the alert as it is likely false positive

Answer

Block the source IP 10.0.1.50

Answer

Block the destination IP 203.0.113.5

Question 3

An organization is designing a policy exception management process. Which THREE elements are critical for this process to be effective?

Accepted Answer

Approval by the CISO or designated authority. Effective exception management requires formal documentation, time limits, and review by appropriate authority to prevent misuse.

Answer

Automatic approval if no response within 24 hours

Answer

Ability for any employee to request an exception

Question 4

Match each data classification level to its handling requirement.

Accepted Answer

Public: No special handling required. Data classification levels determine handling requirements: Public (no special handling), Internal (limited access), Confidential (authorized access only), Restricted (highest protection). Common confusions involve swapping handling requirements between levels.

Answer

Public: Access restricted to authorized personnel only

Answer

Internal: No special handling required

Question 5

An organization is designing its information security program and needs to ensure it supports business continuity. Which TWO of the following should be integrated into the program?

Accepted Answer

Business impact analysis (BIA) results.. A is correct because the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) identifies critical business processes, their maximum tolerable downtime (MTD), and recovery time objectives (RTO), which directly inform the prioritization and design of security controls to ensure business continuity. Without BIA results, the security program cannot align recovery strategies with actual business needs, risking either over-investment or under-protection of key functions.

Answer

Security awareness training for all employees.

Answer

Vulnerability scanning schedules.

Question 6

Order the steps for implementing a security awareness training program.

Accepted Answer

Needs Assessment, then Content Development, then Delivery, then Evaluation, then Continuous Improvement. Training programs start with needs assessment, then content development, delivery, evaluation, and continuous improvement.

Answer

Content Development, then Needs Assessment, then Delivery, then Evaluation, then Continuous Improvement

Answer

Needs Assessment, then Content Development, then Delivery, then Continuous Improvement, then Evaluation

Answer

Needs Assessment, then Content Development, then Evaluation, then Delivery, then Continuous Improvement

Question 7

Match each security framework to its primary purpose.

Accepted Answer

COBIT: A framework for IT governance and management.. COBIT is for IT governance, ISO 27001 for ISMS, and NIST CSF for cybersecurity risk management. The distractors swap definitions between COBIT and ISO 27001.

Answer

COBIT: A standard for information security management systems.

Answer

ISO 27001: A framework for IT governance and management.

Question 8

Which THREE of the following are challenges in implementing information security governance in a decentralized organization?

Accepted Answer

Redundant security controls and tools. In a decentralized organization, each business unit often selects its own security tools and controls, leading to redundant security controls and tools across the enterprise. This redundancy increases costs, creates management complexity, and can introduce gaps in coverage due to inconsistent integration. The lack of centralized oversight means that duplicate solutions for the same function (e.g., multiple endpoint protection platforms) are common, making unified monitoring and maintenance difficult.

Answer

Unified risk reporting

Answer

Centralized incident response

Question 9

A company is evaluating its risk management process. The CISM notices that risks are being assessed based on qualitative scales (low, medium, high) but decisions require quantitative data. What is the most effective action to improve the process?

Accepted Answer

Use a hybrid approach that includes both qualitative and quantitative assessments.. A hybrid approach (Option B) is most effective because it leverages qualitative scales for initial, rapid risk identification and prioritization, while quantitative data (e.g., ALE, SLE, ARO) provides the monetary rigor needed for cost-benefit analysis and management decisions. This aligns with ISACA's guidance that risk assessment should be tailored to the decision context, not purely one method.

Answer

Switch to a fully quantitative risk assessment methodology.

Answer

Replace qualitative scales with precise monetary values.

Answer

Continue using qualitative method since it is simpler.

Question 10

After a security incident, the incident response team identifies that the root cause was a phishing email that bypassed the email filter. The email contained a malicious macro that executed PowerShell commands. Which control would be MOST effective in preventing similar incidents in the future?

Accepted Answer

Disable macros in documents originating from external sources. Disabling macros in documents from external sources directly addresses the attack vector: the malicious macro that executed PowerShell commands. This control prevents the macro from running, regardless of the email filter's failure, by blocking the execution environment at the endpoint level. It is a preventive technical control that stops the attack before it can proceed.

Answer

Implement network segmentation for sensitive systems

Answer

Deploy additional antivirus software on endpoints

Answer

Conduct security awareness training for all employees

Question 11

A security manager is evaluating the effectiveness of the security program. Which of the following would be valid indicators of a mature program? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

Risk management integrated into business processes. Risk management integrated into business processes (B) is a key indicator of a mature security program because it demonstrates that security is not a siloed function but is embedded in strategic decision-making, resource allocation, and operational workflows. This alignment ensures that security controls and investments are directly tied to business objectives and risk appetite, which is a hallmark of maturity as defined by frameworks like the CMMI and the ISACA CISM model.

Answer

Number of security tools deployed

Answer

Low number of security incidents

Question 12

Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of incident containment?

Accepted Answer

To prevent further damage and limit the scope of the incident.. The primary goal of incident containment is to stop the incident from spreading and to limit the scope of damage. This is the immediate priority because, without containment, the attacker may continue to compromise additional systems, exfiltrate data, or escalate privileges. Options A, B, and C are important subsequent steps but are secondary to the urgent need to halt the incident's progression.

Answer

To gather evidence for prosecution.

Answer

To recover systems to normal operation.

Answer

To identify the root cause.

Question 13

A company's incident response team uses a SIEM to detect security events. Which SIEM capability is MOST critical for early detection of a potential incident?

Accepted Answer

Correlation rules. Correlation rules are the most critical SIEM capability for early detection because they allow the incident response team to define specific patterns of activity (e.g., multiple failed logins followed by a successful login from a different geographic location) that indicate a potential security incident. Unlike raw log review or simple alerting, correlation rules reduce false positives by combining multiple data sources and time-based conditions, enabling the SIEM to identify complex attack chains at the earliest possible stage. Without correlation, the team would rely on manual log analysis or isolated alerts, which significantly delays detection.

Answer

Real-time alerting

Answer

User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA)

Answer

Long-term log retention

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit. The CISO wants to improve the program. Which recommendation BEST addresses the main gap shown in the dashboard?

Accepted Answer

Implement automated patching for high-risk vulnerabilities. The dashboard shows high-risk vulnerability remediation at 88%, which is below the target. Implementing automated patching for high-risk vulnerabilities would directly address this gap by ensuring faster and more consistent remediation. Option B is incorrect because reducing the compliance target does not fix the underlying issue. Option C is incorrect because critical vulnerability remediation is already high. Option D is incorrect because increasing patch frequency for all systems may not specifically target the high-risk vulnerability gap.

Answer

Reduce the compliance target for high-risk vulnerabilities to 90 days

Answer

Focus on critical vulnerability remediation

Answer

Increase patch frequency for all systems

Question 15

An organization wants to measure the effectiveness of its security awareness programme. Which metric is a leading indicator of improved security culture?

Accepted Answer

Number of phishing emails reported by employees. An increase in the number of phishing emails reported by employees indicates that they are actively recognizing and reporting suspicious activity, which is a leading indicator of improved security awareness and culture.

Answer

Number of security incidents attributed to human error

Answer

Percentage of employees who completed annual training

Answer

Average score on knowledge assessment tests

Question 16

A large enterprise is implementing a new governance framework. The board has approved a risk appetite statement. What is the MOST important next step for the information security manager?

Accepted Answer

Define risk acceptance criteria and thresholds. Once the board has approved a risk appetite statement, the information security manager must translate that high-level appetite into actionable risk acceptance criteria and thresholds. This step is critical because it defines the specific boundaries (e.g., maximum acceptable monetary loss per incident, maximum tolerable downtime) that guide all subsequent risk treatment decisions. Without these criteria, technical controls (Option A) and training (Option D) cannot be properly scoped, and audit plans (Option B) would lack measurable benchmarks.

Answer

Implement technical controls to reduce risks

Answer

Develop an audit plan to monitor risk levels

Answer

Conduct security awareness training for employees

Question 17

A security analyst receives an alert from the SIEM indicating a high number of failed login attempts from a single external IP address targeting a public-facing web server. The analyst checks the logs and sees that the attempts are using common usernames. What is the MOST appropriate immediate response?

Accepted Answer

Block the IP address at the firewall.. The immediate response to a brute-force attack from a single external IP is to block that IP at the firewall. This stops the attack at the network perimeter, preventing further authentication attempts without affecting legitimate users (assuming the IP is not a known legitimate source). Delaying action could allow the attacker to compromise an account via password guessing, especially since common usernames are being targeted.

Answer

Ignore the alert as it is likely a false positive.

Answer

Disable the web server.

Answer

Notify law enforcement.

Question 18

After an incident is contained and eradicated, the incident response team conducts a post-incident review. Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of this review?

Accepted Answer

Identify process improvements. The primary objective of a post-incident review is to identify process improvements that enhance the organization's incident response capabilities. This aligns with the CISM focus on continuous improvement, ensuring that lessons learned are captured and applied to prevent recurrence or improve future response efficiency.

Answer

Update security policies

Answer

Determine the financial impact

Answer

Assign blame to the responsible parties

Question 19

A company's IDS alerts on a potential breach. The incident response team is called. What should they do immediately?

Accepted Answer

Verify the alert and assess scope. The immediate priority upon receiving an IDS alert is to verify the alert's validity and assess the scope of the potential breach. This ensures the incident response team does not waste resources on false positives and can accurately determine the affected systems, data, and network segments before taking containment actions. Verification typically involves correlating the IDS signature with actual packet captures, logs, and system telemetry to confirm malicious activity.

Answer

Disconnect all network cables

Answer

Notify law enforcement

Answer

Reimage affected systems

Question 20

Arrange the steps for responding to a data breach involving personally identifiable information (PII).

Accepted Answer

Step 1: Containment, Step 2: Evidence Preservation, Step 3: Internal Notification, Step 4: Impact Assessment, Step 5: External Notification. Incident response begins with containment, then evidence preservation, internal notification, impact assessment, and external notification.

Answer

Step 1: Impact Assessment, Step 2: Containment, Step 3: Evidence Preservation, Step 4: Internal Notification, Step 5: External Notification

Answer

Step 1: External Notification, Step 2: Internal Notification, Step 3: Containment, Step 4: Evidence Preservation, Step 5: Impact Assessment

Answer

Step 1: Evidence Preservation, Step 2: Containment, Step 3: Internal Notification, Step 4: Impact Assessment, Step 5: External Notification