350-401 Mock Exam 92 — 25 Questions

Question 1

An organization uses Chef to manage network device configurations. A cookbook that configures SNMP community strings is applied to a group of routers. After the run, one router loses SNMP access. The cookbook uses the following resource: snmp_community 'public' do action :remove end. What is the most likely cause of the issue?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

The cookbook removed the only configured SNMP community string. The `snmp_community 'public' do action :remove end` resource explicitly removes the SNMP community string named 'public'. If 'public' was the only SNMP community string configured on the router, its removal would leave the router with no valid SNMP community, causing all SNMP access to be lost. Chef applies the resource as defined; the issue is not a syntax error or misapplication of a different string, but the direct consequence of removing the sole community.

Answer

The router's Chef client encountered a syntax error and stopped mid-execution

Answer

The cookbook accidentally applied a 'private' community string instead of 'public'

Answer

The cookbook is not idempotent and reapplied the change multiple times

Question 2

A network engineer is using Cisco DNA Center to monitor network health. The Assurance dashboard shows that a particular access switch has a high CPU utilization issue. The engineer wants to investigate the root cause using DNA Center's built-in tools. Which feature should the engineer use to analyze the switch's CPU utilization over time?

Accepted Answer

Use the 'Trends' feature in Assurance to view CPU utilization over time.. Cisco DNA Center's Assurance module provides historical and real-time data for network devices. The 'Trends' feature allows engineers to view metrics like CPU utilization over a selected time period, helping to identify patterns and root causes.

Answer

Use the 'Command Runner' to execute 'show process cpu' on the switch.

Answer

Use the 'Path Trace' tool to analyze traffic paths.

Answer

Use the 'Software Image Management' to check for software bugs.

Question 3

A network engineer is deploying Cisco DNA Center in a brownfield network. The engineer wants to use DNA Center to automate the configuration of QoS policies across all access switches. After discovering the devices and adding them to Inventory, the engineer creates a QoS policy and assigns it to a site. However, when attempting to provision, DNA Center reports that the devices are in 'Compliance Error' state. What is the most likely reason?

Accepted Answer

The devices have existing QoS configurations that conflict with the new policy.. In brownfield deployments, devices may have existing configurations that conflict with the intended policies. DNA Center performs a compliance check before provisioning. If the current device configuration does not match the intended configuration (e.g., existing QoS settings), DNA Center reports a compliance error. The engineer must either update the device configuration to match the intent or modify the intent to accommodate the existing configuration.

Answer

The devices are not running a supported IOS-XE version for QoS automation.

Answer

The DNA Center appliance does not have enough storage to process the QoS policy.

Answer

The QoS policy was created with an invalid DSCP value.

Question 4

A network engineer is planning to use Cisco DNA Center to automate the deployment of a new branch office. The engineer has already discovered the devices and added them to Inventory. The engineer wants to use a template to configure the devices consistently. Which tool in DNA Center should the engineer use to create and apply the template?

Accepted Answer

Use the 'Template Editor' to create a CLI template and apply it during provisioning.. Cisco DNA Center includes a feature called 'Template Editor' (or 'Network Templates') that allows engineers to create CLI templates for device configuration. These templates can be parameterized and applied to devices during provisioning, ensuring consistent configuration across the branch.

Answer

Use the 'Policy Editor' to create a policy-based configuration.

Answer

Use the 'Command Runner' to execute commands on multiple devices.

Answer

Use the 'Network Profiles' to define the configuration.

Question 5

Examine the following OSPF configuration on a Cisco IOS-XE router:

router ospf 1
 router-id 1.1.1.1
 network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0
 network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
 default-information originate always metric 10 metric-type 1

What is the effect of the 'default-information originate always' command?

Accepted Answer

A default route is unconditionally advertised into OSPF with metric 10 and type E1.. This command injects a default route (0.0.0.0/0) into the OSPF domain unconditionally, even if the router does not have a default route in its routing table. The metric and type are set as specified.

Answer

A default route is advertised into OSPF only if the router has a default route in its routing table.

Answer

The router will redistribute static default routes into OSPF.

Answer

The router will generate a default route only for area 1.

Question 6

Which three statements about Cisco DNA Center Assurance are true? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Cisco DNA Center Assurance uses NetFlow, SNMP, and syslog data to analyze network performance and client experience.. DNA Center Assurance provides proactive monitoring and troubleshooting. The correct answers cover its data sources (NetFlow, SNMP, syslog), client health scoring, and AI-driven insights. The wrong answers incorrectly claim real-time packet capture (not a core Assurance feature) and that Assurance only monitors wired clients.

Answer

Cisco DNA Center Assurance can capture and analyze full packet captures in real time for every flow.

Answer

Cisco DNA Center Assurance only monitors wired clients and does not provide visibility into wireless client performance.

Question 7

Drag and drop each PnP workflow step on the left to its matching action on the right.

Accepted Answer

Claim: Assigns a discovered device to a specific site and profile. PnP steps: Claim assigns a device to a site; Day0 Template applies initial configuration; Image Upgrade updates the device software; Provision deploys the full configuration.

Question 8

Drag and drop each DNA Center package on the left to its matching function on the right.

Accepted Answer

Assurance: Provides network analytics, health scores, and troubleshooting insights. Cisco DNA Center packages: Assurance provides analytics and troubleshooting; Provision automates device configuration; Design creates network hierarchies and settings; Policy manages access and segmentation.

Question 9

Drag and drop each DNA Center API category on the left to its matching endpoint group on the right.

Accepted Answer

Know Your Network: Endpoints for network discovery, inventory, and topology. DNA Center API categories: Know Your Network includes discovery and inventory; Site Management handles sites and maps; Connectivity manages network devices; Operational Tasks covers tasks and events.

Question 10

Drag and drop the steps of DNA Center template deployment to a device into the correct order, from first to last.

Accepted Answer

Create a template in a project. The correct order begins with creating the template in the project, then committing the template, then attaching it to a site, then provisioning the device, and finally pushing the configuration. This ensures the template is properly versioned and applied during provisioning.

Question 11

Drag and drop the steps of DNA Center assurance issue detection and root cause analysis into the correct order, from first to last.

Accepted Answer

Collect telemetry from network devices. Assurance starts with collecting telemetry, detecting an anomaly, raising an issue, correlating data for root cause, and then recommending a remediation action.

Question 12

Drag and drop the steps of SPAN session on EtherChannel member ports into the correct order, from first to last.

Accepted Answer

Create SPAN session number. SPAN on EtherChannel requires configuring the session, specifying source ports (member or port-channel), setting destination, and enabling.

Question 13

Which two statements about Cisco DNA Center software image management (SWIM) are true? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Cisco DNA Center allows administrators to define a golden image for each device family and automatically enforce compliance.. SWIM in DNA Center automates image upgrades and compliance. The correct answers describe golden image definition and remote upgrade capabilities. The wrong answers incorrectly claim mandatory TFTP usage, lack of compliance reporting, and that SWIM only works with specific hardware models.

Answer

Cisco DNA Center SWIM requires all devices to have a TFTP server configured locally to receive new images.

Answer

Cisco DNA Center SWIM does not provide any compliance reporting or audit trails for image versions.

Answer

Cisco DNA Center SWIM only supports Cisco Catalyst 9000 series switches and cannot manage older platforms.

Question 14

Drag and drop each EIGRP metric component on the left to its matching K variable on the right.

Accepted Answer

Bandwidth: K1. In the EIGRP metric formula, the K values correspond to specific metric components: K1 is bandwidth, K2 is load, K3 is delay, K4 is reliability. MTU is not a K variable; the EIGRP metric does not include MTU.

Answer

MTU: K5

Question 15

A network engineer runs the following command on a Cisco WLC:

WLC# show ap rf-profile summary

RF-Profile Name: default-rf-profile
Description: Default RF Profile
Band: 5 GHz
Channel Width: 20/40/80 MHz
Data Rates: 6,9,12,18,24,36,48,54 Mbps
Power Level: 1 (max)

RF-Profile Name: high-density
Description: High Density RF Profile
Band: 5 GHz
Channel Width: 20 MHz
Data Rates: 12,18,24,36,48,54 Mbps
Power Level: 3

Based on this output, what can be concluded?

Accepted Answer

The high-density profile is designed to support more clients by using narrower channels and lower power.. The high-density RF profile uses a fixed 20 MHz channel width, which reduces co-channel interference and allows more non-overlapping channels, combined with a lower power level (3 vs. 1) to shrink cell size and increase overall capacity for many clients in a dense environment.

Answer

The default profile uses only 20 MHz channels.

Answer

The high-density profile disables all data rates below 12 Mbps.

Answer

The default profile is used for 2.4 GHz band.

Question 16

Which two statements about Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors are true? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware without a host operating system.. Type 1 hypervisors run directly on hardware and are used in data centers. Type 2 hypervisors run on a host OS and are common in labs. VMware ESXi is a Type 1 hypervisor. VMware Workstation is Type 2.

Answer

A Type 2 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware without a host operating system.

Answer

VMware ESXi is an example of a Type 2 hypervisor.

Answer

Type 1 hypervisors are typically used for desktop virtualization in enterprise environments.

Question 17

Drag and drop the steps of IP SLA HTTP operation for application monitoring into the correct order, from first to last.

Accepted Answer

Create IP SLA HTTP operation with URL. First, the HTTP operation is defined with the target URL. Then optional parameters like HTTP method or version are set. The operation is configured to monitor HTTP response. Next, the operation is scheduled. Finally, verification is done to confirm the operation is active.

Question 18

Which two statements about network design for high availability are true? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

HSRP allows two or more routers to share a virtual IP address, providing default gateway redundancy.. High availability design aims to minimize downtime through redundancy and fast convergence. First Hop Redundancy Protocols (FHRP) like HSRP, VRRP, or GLBP provide default gateway redundancy. StackWise Virtual allows switches to operate as a single logical device, improving redundancy and simplifying management. Option A is correct because HSRP provides active/standby gateway redundancy. Option C is correct because StackWise Virtual virtualizes two switches into one, reducing complexity and improving resilience. Option B is incorrect because HSRP does not provide load balancing by default (GLBP does). Option D is incorrect because a single uplink is a single point of failure; high availability requires redundant links. Option E is incorrect because redundant links without STP or loop prevention would cause broadcast storms; STP is essential.

Answer

HSRP automatically load-balances traffic across all routers in the group.

Answer

A single uplink from an access switch to the distribution layer is sufficient for high availability.

Answer

Redundant links between switches do not require Spanning Tree Protocol to prevent loops.

Question 19

Drag and drop each network design tier on the left to its matching function on the right.

Accepted Answer

Access layer: Provides Layer 2/Layer 3 access for end devices and users. The access layer provides user connectivity; the distribution layer aggregates and applies policies; the core layer provides high-speed transport.

Question 20

Which THREE of the following are components of a Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Spine switch. The spine switch is a core component of a Cisco ACI fabric, forming the spine-leaf topology. Spine switches provide high-speed, non-blocking connectivity between leaf switches and handle all east-west traffic, relying on IS-IS as the routing protocol for fabric discovery and forwarding.

Answer

Firewall

Answer

Router