CV0-004 Practice Test 45 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A user attempted to copy an encrypted snapshot to a different region and received the above error. What is the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

The snapshot was created in a different region using a regional encryption key that is not present in the destination region.. The error occurs when copying an encrypted snapshot to a different region because the snapshot was encrypted using a regional encryption key that exists only in the source region. The destination region does not have access to that key, causing the copy to fail. Option C correctly identifies this scenario.

Answer

The snapshot size exceeds the regional limit.

Answer

The user does not have permission to create snapshots in the destination region.

Answer

The encryption key used to encrypt the snapshot has been deleted.

Question 2

Which THREE of the following are best practices for deploying applications in a cloud environment? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Use immutable infrastructure patterns.. Immutable infrastructure patterns (A) are a best practice because they ensure that once a server or container is deployed, it is never modified in place. Instead, any change requires building a new instance from a golden image or template, which eliminates configuration drift and makes rollbacks trivial. This approach aligns with cloud-native principles where infrastructure is treated as disposable and version-controlled, reducing the risk of snowflake servers and improving reliability.

Answer

Open all ports in security groups to simplify connectivity.

Answer

Keep unused resources to avoid reprovisioning delays.

Question 3

A company is running a database server on a virtual machine in the cloud. The database team reports that write operations are taking longer than expected. The administrator checks the disk performance metrics and sees that the average disk queue length is consistently above 10. Which action would most likely resolve this issue?

Accepted Answer

Upgrade to a higher IOPS tier for the disk.. A high disk queue length indicates that I/O requests are waiting, meaning the disk cannot keep up with the workload. Upgrading to a higher IOPS tier provides more throughput, reducing the queue length. Option A is wrong because adding RAM might reduce the number of disk reads due to caching, but write operations still require disk I/O and RAM does not directly increase I/O throughput. Option C is wrong because increasing disk size does not inherently improve IOPS; it only adds more storage capacity. Option D is wrong because enabling compression reduces the amount of data written, which can lower I/O demand, but it does not directly address the queue length issue caused by insufficient IOPS.

Answer

Add more RAM to the virtual machine.

Answer

Increase the size of the disk.

Answer

Enable compression on the database.

Question 4

A company uses a cloud storage service with versioning enabled. An employee accidentally deleted a critical file. The administrator attempts to restore the file from the version history, but the file does not appear in the list of versions. What is the most likely reason?

Accepted Answer

The file was created before versioning was enabled.. When versioning is enabled on a cloud storage service (such as Amazon S3), only objects created or modified after the versioning feature is turned on are assigned a version ID. Any objects that existed before versioning was enabled are not tracked in the version history. Therefore, if the file was created prior to enabling versioning, it will not appear in the list of versions, and the administrator cannot restore it via version history.

Answer

Versioning was suspended after the file was created.

Answer

The file was overwritten, not deleted.

Answer

The file was deleted using a lifecycle policy.

Question 5

A cloud administrator receives an alert that a virtual machine (VM) is unresponsive. The VM is hosted on a hypervisor that shows high CPU ready time. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Over-provisioning of vCPUs on the hypervisor. High CPU ready time indicates that the VM is ready to execute instructions but is waiting for the hypervisor to schedule physical CPU time. This is a classic symptom of over-provisioning vCPUs, where the total number of vCPUs assigned to all VMs exceeds the available physical cores, causing contention at the hypervisor scheduler level.

Answer

Insufficient memory allocated to the VM

Answer

Network latency between the VM and storage

Answer

Disk I/O contention from other VMs

Question 6

A cloud administrator is responsible for ensuring the availability of a critical application that runs on a virtual machine. The administrator needs to implement a solution that can automatically restart the virtual machine if it becomes unresponsive due to an operating system crash. Which of the following should the administrator configure?

Accepted Answer

A VM group configured with automatic recovery. Configuring automatic recovery for the VM (or a group of VMs) allows the cloud platform to detect a VM failure and automatically restart it. This is a feature provided by most cloud providers to ensure high availability.

Answer

A snapshot-based backup policy

Answer

A load balancer with a health probe

Answer

A custom script that sends a heartbeat to a monitoring service

Question 7

A cloud team is planning a disaster recovery drill for their application running in a public cloud. They want to validate that the recovery process meets the defined RTO and RPO. Which THREE activities should be included in the DR drill? (Select THREE.)

Accepted Answer

Measure the time taken to restore services from backups.. Key DR drill activities include verifying the recovery time, checking data freshness to validate RPO, and conducting failover testing to ensure the process works. Chaos engineering is for resilience testing but not specifically for RTO/RPO validation.

Answer

Review cost optimization recommendations for the DR environment.

Answer

Run chaos engineering experiments to introduce random failures.

Question 8

A cloud engineer is deploying a containerized application using Kubernetes. The application consists of a frontend, a backend API, and a database. The engineer needs to ensure that the backend API can be reached by the frontend but not from outside the cluster. Which Kubernetes resource should the engineer use to expose the backend API?

Accepted Answer

ClusterIP service. A ClusterIP service exposes the backend API on a cluster-internal IP address, making it reachable only from within the Kubernetes cluster. This meets the requirement that the frontend can communicate with the backend API, but external traffic is blocked. ClusterIP is the default service type and is ideal for internal service-to-service communication.

Answer

NodePort service

Answer

Ingress resource

Answer

LoadBalancer service

Question 9

Which THREE of the following are common causes of cloud resource provisioning failures?

Accepted Answer

Insufficient service quotas.. Cloud providers enforce service quotas (e.g., AWS Service Quotas, Azure subscription limits, GCP project quotas) that cap the number of resources you can provision per region or account. When a provisioning request exceeds these quotas, the API call fails with an explicit error (e.g., AWS 'LimitExceeded' or Azure 'QuotaExceeded'). This is a common failure mode, especially in automated scaling or CI/CD pipelines.

Answer

Disk encryption settings.

Answer

Incorrect resource tagging.

Question 10

Which TWO of the following are valid methods for migrating on-premises virtual machines to a public cloud? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Use a backup and restore method creating cloud instance from backup.. Correct methods for migrating on-premises VMs to public cloud include: (B) using backup and restore, where you create a cloud instance from a backup, and (C) exporting the VM as OVF and importing to the cloud. Reinstalling OS and apps (A) is a redeployment, not migration. Physical-to-virtual conversion (D) applies to physical servers, not VMs. Live replication (E) is for disaster recovery, not a one-time migration method.

Answer

Reinstall the OS and applications on new cloud instances.

Answer

Use a physical server migration tool that converts to cloud image.

Answer

Use a hybrid cloud extension that replicates VMs live.

Question 11

A cloud administrator is configuring a new virtual private cloud (VPC) and needs to ensure that traffic between web servers and database servers is restricted to only the necessary ports. Which security approach should the administrator implement?

Accepted Answer

Configure a security group with inbound rules for the web tier and outbound rules for the database tier.. Security groups are stateful firewalls that operate at the instance level. By configuring a security group for the database tier with an inbound rule that allows traffic only from the web tier's security group on the necessary database port (e.g., 3306 for MySQL), and a corresponding outbound rule on the web tier's security group, the administrator can restrict traffic to only the required ports. Network ACLs are stateless and require explicit rules for return traffic, making them more complex and error-prone. IAM policies manage permissions, not traffic. Flow logs only monitor traffic, they do not block it.

Answer

Enable VPC flow logs to detect and block malicious traffic.

Answer

Create an IAM policy to restrict access between subnets.

Answer

Implement network ACLs with rules that allow only database-specific ports (e.g., 3306) from web to database and block all other traffic.

Question 12

Which TWO characteristics are essential for a cloud service to be considered as a true Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) offering?

Accepted Answer

Customer has control over the guest operating system. In IaaS, the customer retains control over the guest operating system, including its configuration, security, and installed applications. The provider manages the underlying physical infrastructure and hypervisor, but the customer is responsible for the OS layer, which is a defining characteristic of IaaS versus PaaS or SaaS. Option E is also correct because on-demand self-service provisioning is a fundamental characteristic of cloud computing as defined by NIST, and it is essential for IaaS offerings, allowing customers to provision virtual machines and other resources automatically without human interaction with the provider.

Answer

Provider automatically applies OS security patches

Answer

Customer manages the underlying hypervisor

Answer

Provider performs automated backups of all customer data

Question 13

A company is migrating a web application to the cloud. The application requires low latency and high availability across multiple geographic regions. Which cloud deployment model BEST meets these requirements?

Accepted Answer

Public cloud. The public cloud model is the best fit because it offers globally distributed infrastructure (e.g., AWS Regions, Azure Availability Zones) that enables low-latency access and high availability through multi-region deployment. Public cloud providers natively support global load balancing (e.g., AWS Global Accelerator, Azure Traffic Manager) and auto-scaling across regions, meeting the application's requirements without the capital expense of building private infrastructure.

Answer

Private cloud

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Hybrid cloud

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Community cloud

Question 14

Which of the following storage types is most suitable for hosting a shared file system that multiple virtual machines need to access concurrently using NFS?

Accepted Answer

File storage. File storage (e.g., EFS, Azure Files) provides a shared file system accessible via NFS or SMB.

Answer

Archive storage

Answer

Block storage

Answer

Object storage

Question 15

A cloud architect is designing a disaster recovery solution for a critical database. The RTO is 4 hours and the RPO is 1 hour. Which replication strategy should the architect choose to meet these requirements?

Accepted Answer

Warm standby. Warm standby maintains a partially scaled environment with frequent replication, meeting an RPO of 1 hour and RTO of 4 hours.

Answer

Hot standby

Answer

Active-passive

Answer

Cold standby