200-201 Hard Questions — 25 Difficult Questions

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst is analyzing a Windows host that is communicating with an external server at 192.168.1.50. Based on the output, which process is likely malicious?

Accepted Answer

powershell.exe (PID 2792) because it has an established HTTPS connection to an external server.. PowerShell.exe (PID 2792) is the likely malicious process because it has an established HTTPS connection (TCP port 443) to an external server at 192.168.1.50. PowerShell is a powerful scripting tool often abused by attackers to execute arbitrary code, download payloads, or establish command-and-control (C2) channels over encrypted HTTPS, which can evade detection by traditional signature-based security tools.

Answer

svchost.exe (PID 1420) because it is connecting to an external IP on port 80.

Answer

cmd.exe (PID 2568) because it could be used to launch other processes.

Answer

notepad.exe (PID 2344) because it is not expecting to make any network connections.

Question 2

During a security awareness training session, an employee reports they clicked a link in a phishing email but did not enter credentials. Which policy violation is most likely involved?

Accepted Answer

Incident reporting policy. Clicking a suspected phishing link without reporting it violates the incident reporting policy. Option A is wrong because the employee did not enter credentials, so password policy is intact. Option B is wrong because the link itself is not necessarily prohibited by AUP unless it involves inappropriate content. Option D is wrong because data classification policy is about handling data, not email links.

Answer

Data classification policy

Answer

Acceptable use policy

Answer

Password policy

Question 3

An analyst is investigating a Windows host and observes a suspicious process with PID 1337. Which THREE of the following Volatility commands would provide useful information about this process? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

cmdline. The `cmdline` plugin displays the command-line arguments used to start a process, which is critical for identifying malicious or suspicious execution patterns (e.g., obfuscated paths, encoded commands). For PID 1337, this reveals exactly how the process was launched, helping to confirm or refute malicious intent.

Answer

hivelist

Answer

connscan

Question 4

An analyst is examining a YARA rule that contains the condition: 'uint16(0) == 0x5a4d and filesize < 500KB'. What type of file is this rule targeting?

Accepted Answer

Windows executable files. 0x5A4D is the MZ header for Windows executables (PE files). The rule looks for files starting with 'MZ' and less than 500KB, likely targeting small malware executables.

Answer

PDF files

Answer

JPEG images

Answer

Linux ELF files

Question 5

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst is analyzing a Windows host that is communicating with an external server at 192.168.1.50. Based on the output, which process is likely malicious?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

The permit ip any any at the end allows all unexamined traffic, potentially bypassing other security controls. The ACL permits all other traffic (line 40) after denying SSH from other sources. This bypasses any additional restrictions; the intent might be to allow only specific IPs for SSH, but the permit ip any any at the end allows all other traffic, which could include other unwanted protocols. Option A is incorrect because line 40 permits everything. Option B is wrong because the source is correctly the internal subnets. Option C is wrong because ACLs are sequence-dependent, but line 30 only denies SSH from other sources.

Answer

The destination 'any' allows SSH to any external server, which is too permissive

Answer

The ACL permits SSH from unauthorized IP addresses

Answer

The ACL sequence is illogical; line 30 should be before lines 10 and 20

Question 6

During a merger, two companies have different security policies. Company A uses a discretionary access control (DAC) model, while Company B uses a mandatory access control (MAC) model. The merged entity must adopt a single policy. Which approach is most likely to be adopted and why?

Accepted Answer

MAC because it is more secure. MAC provides stricter, system-enforced controls based on classification, which is often adopted in higher-security environments. DAC relies on user discretion and is less secure.

Answer

DAC because it is more flexible

Answer

Both can coexist

Answer

A new hybrid model combining both

Question 7

A security analyst discovers that an attacker exfiltrated data using DNS tunneling. Which TWO controls should be implemented to detect or prevent this? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

Monitor DNS query sizes and frequencies. DNS tunneling often involves unusually large query sizes (e.g., encoded data in subdomains) and abnormal query frequencies (e.g., thousands of requests per minute). Monitoring these metrics allows analysts to spot deviations from baseline behavior, which is a key detection technique for exfiltration via DNS. Option B is correct because a DNS sinkhole redirects malicious or suspicious DNS queries to a controlled IP address, effectively blocking the resolution of domains used for tunneling and preventing data from reaching the attacker's command-and-control server.

Answer

Disable recursive DNS on the internal DNS server

Answer

Implement DNSSEC

Answer

Block all DNS queries to external servers

Question 8

During a security assessment, a SOC analyst notices an IDS/IPS alert with a severity of 'High' for a signature named 'ET TROJAN Win32.Vobfus Checkin'. The alert shows source IP 10.0.0.5 and destination IP 203.0.113.50 on port 443. What is the most likely interpretation of this alert?

Accepted Answer

A compromised host attempting to communicate with a command-and-control server over encrypted traffic. The signature 'ET TROJAN Win32.Vobfus Checkin' is a known detection rule for the Vobfus trojan family, which typically establishes command-and-control (C2) communications over HTTPS (port 443) to exfiltrate data or receive instructions. The high severity indicates the IDS/IPS has matched traffic patterns or JA3 hashes associated with this malware's C2 beaconing, making it highly likely that the host at 10.0.0.5 is compromised and communicating with a malicious server at 203.0.113.50.

Answer

A false positive due to a web browser accessing a secure site

Answer

An attacker scanning for open HTTPS ports on the internal network

Answer

A benign HTTPS connection to a legitimate website

Question 9

A company's security policy includes a clause that all software installed on company devices must be approved by the IT department. An employee installs an unapproved application that later causes a malware infection. Which policy was violated?

Accepted Answer

Acceptable Use Policy. The Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) defines what activities and software are permitted on company devices. By installing an unapproved application without IT authorization, the employee violated the AUP, which directly led to the malware infection. This policy is the primary control for preventing unauthorized software installations that bypass security baselines.

Answer

Incident Response Policy

Answer

Data Retention Policy

Answer

Remote Access Policy

Question 10

Which TWO characteristics are typical of host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) compared to network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS)?

Accepted Answer

Visibility into local system events such as file system changes and registry modifications.. HIDS are installed directly on a host and have direct access to the host's operating system, allowing them to monitor local system events such as file system changes, registry modifications, and process activity. This granular visibility is a key advantage over NIDS, which only sees network traffic and cannot inspect internal host state.

Answer

Better suited for protecting a large number of devices simultaneously.

Answer

Less susceptible to host-based attacks.

Answer

Lower latency in detecting network attacks.

Question 11

Which THREE are typical sources of log data used in security monitoring? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Windows Event Logs.. Windows Event Logs are a primary source of security monitoring data because they record critical security events such as logon attempts, account changes, and process creation (Event IDs 4624, 4625, 4688). Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems ingest these logs to detect unauthorized access, privilege escalation, and malware execution.

Answer

Printer spool logs.

Answer

HVAC system logs.

Question 12

A company implements a policy where users must authenticate with a password and a one-time code from a token. Which AAA component is strengthened by this policy?

Accepted Answer

Authentication. Authentication is the AAA component that verifies the identity of a user. By requiring both a password (something you know) and a one-time code from a token (something you have), the policy implements multi-factor authentication (MFA), which directly strengthens the authentication process. This ensures that even if a password is compromised, an attacker cannot authenticate without the token.

Answer

Accounting

Answer

Auditing

Answer

Authorization

Question 13

An analyst is investigating a potential data exfiltration. Which two indicators in network traffic are most indicative of data exfiltration over DNS? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Large DNS response packets. Large DNS response packets (Option B) are indicative of data exfiltration because attackers often encode stolen data into DNS TXT or other record types, causing response sizes to exceed the typical 512-byte limit and triggering EDNS0 extensions. This anomaly stands out against normal DNS traffic, where most responses are small.

Answer

Use of standard DNS ports

Answer

DNSSEC enabled

Answer

Frequent DNS query retransmissions

Question 14

Which TWO of the following are valid reasons to use a proxy server for security monitoring? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

To inspect encrypted traffic by acting as a man-in-the-middle with SSL decryption. Options C and D are correct. A proxy server can inspect encrypted traffic by performing SSL/TLS decryption (acting as a man-in-the-middle), which is essential for security monitoring of HTTPS traffic. Additionally, a proxy can enforce outbound access policies by filtering traffic and blocking connections to known malicious destinations (e.g., C2 servers). Option A is incorrect because proxy servers introduce additional network hops, generally increasing latency. Option B is incorrect because while proxies can log traffic, they do not provide a complete log of all network traffic—only traffic that passes through them—and specialized forensic tools are typically more comprehensive. Option E is incorrect because proxy servers do not replace endpoint anti-malware software; both are complementary security controls.

Answer

To reduce network latency for monitored traffic

Answer

To provide a complete log of all network traffic for forensics

Answer

To replace the need for endpoint anti-malware software

Question 15

Given a packet capture showing TCP packets with flags: first packet SYN, second packet SYN-ACK, third packet ACK, then a fourth packet with RST flag. What should the analyst suspect?

Accepted Answer

Port scan. The three-way handshake (SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK) completes a TCP connection, but the immediate RST after the ACK indicates the client terminated the connection without sending any application data. This pattern is characteristic of a port scan (e.g., using nmap's connect scan), where the scanner verifies the port is open by completing the handshake and then immediately resets to avoid leaving the connection half-open.

Answer

Normal traffic

Answer

SYN flood

Answer

Denial of service

Question 16

You are a security analyst at a multinational corporation. The company has implemented a security policy that requires all employees to use company-issued laptops with full disk encryption. During a routine audit, you discover that a senior executive's laptop is not encrypted. The executive claims that IT support had disabled encryption because the laptop was running slowly. The current policy does not allow exceptions without management approval. The executive's laptop contains sensitive client data. What should you do?

Accepted Answer

Report the violation to the security manager and advise that the laptop remain in use but monitored closely until encryption can be applied during next maintenance window.. It follows the security policy by reporting the violation to the security manager and proposing a monitored approach until encryption can be applied during the next maintenance window, balancing security and operational continuity. Option B is insufficient as it creates an informal exception without proper authorization. Option C is an overreaction without evidence of data exposure. Option D violates policy by taking unauthorized action.

Answer

Accept the executive's explanation and document it as an informal exception.

Answer

Escalate to the incident response team to treat this as a data breach because data may have been exposed.

Answer

Immediately re-enable encryption on the laptop and submit an exception request after the fact.

Question 17

An analyst is reviewing a memory dump and uses Volatility's cmdline plugin to view process command lines. One process shows command line arguments that include a long base64-encoded string. What should the analyst suspect?

Accepted Answer

The process may be running obfuscated malicious code. The presence of a long base64-encoded string in a process command line is a strong indicator of obfuscation, commonly used by malware to hide payloads or configuration data from static analysis. Base64 encoding is not encryption; it is a simple encoding scheme that can be easily decoded, but it obscures the string's content from casual inspection. Volatility's cmdline plugin reveals this artifact, and an analyst should suspect that the process is executing obfuscated malicious code, as attackers frequently use this technique to evade signature-based detection.

Answer

The process is benign and the string is a normal parameter

Answer

The string is a hash for integrity verification

Answer

The process is using encryption

Question 18

An analyst suspects a host is communicating with a command-and-control server using DNS tunneling. Which THREE network traffic patterns would support this hypothesis?

Accepted Answer

Frequent use of TXT record type in DNS queries. DNS tunneling often uses high query volumes, TXT records to encode data, and large response sizes.

Answer

DNS queries with TTL values greater than 86400

Answer

DNS queries for multiple well-known domains

Question 19

A security analyst is reviewing NetFlow records and notices a host sending data to an external IP at regular intervals during non-business hours. Which flow characteristic is most indicative of data exfiltration?

Accepted Answer

Constant bit rate and consistent packet size.. Data exfiltration often uses a steady, low-and-slow approach to evade detection. A constant bit rate and consistent packet size indicate a scripted, automated transfer, such as a beacon or a covert channel, which is highly suspicious during non-business hours. This pattern contrasts with legitimate traffic, which typically shows variable packet sizes and bursty behavior.

Answer

Random destination ports.

Answer

High number of small packets.

Answer

Low number of bytes per flow.

Question 20

Which THREE factors should be considered when tuning an IPS signature? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Application protocol. Application protocol (B) is critical because IPS signatures are protocol-aware and must match the specific protocol context (e.g., HTTP, SMTP, DNS) to avoid false positives. Tuning based on the protocol ensures the signature only inspects traffic where the vulnerability or exploit is relevant, such as applying a SQL injection signature only to HTTP traffic.

Answer

Time of day

Answer

Packet length